NL50 6-max: 22 OOP to raiser, flop/turn favorable. Actions?

[toomuchforu]

fold preflop, fold flop.
don't think that playing a cash game with 50BB is the same as a tournament starting with 50BB. It's very different and not usually profitable to play half stacks in cash games like this. especially when you are limp calling 22 UTG

[floppy]

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You cannot play implied odds hands (22, 67s) profitably with a starting stack of 50 bb's or less.

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Are you responding to this:

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Wrt this hand: How is the 5/10 rule being misapplied here? I have a pocket pair, and it costs me less than 10% of my stack to see the flop. Position matters less since I'll know exactly where I am on the flop (though after this particular flop I was willing to guess that I was ahead).


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Not to be a douche, but since I went through the trouble explaining why I thought I did in fact have implied odds in this situation, would you be so kind to explain where my reasoning is flawed? I agree that SC are unprofitable to play in this manner, but again, PP are made or broken on the flop.

I'll ask the same question I asked before: Are you saying the 5/10 rule is wrong? The "5" and "10" are percentages of your stack, so it shouldn't matter what your starting stack is. If it is wrong, what do you think the proper percentages of your stack are to continue against a raise when your call closes the betting?

C'mon, work with me here. "Because I say so" isn't very helpful, particularly when you're contradicting a rule that you yourself have applied elsewhere. I've read these forums pretty extensively at SSNL and uNL, and discussions about these kind of situations just don't seem to exist.