right bet to knock out the flushdraw

[TanukiTen]

Ok, thx for your answers to my question.

What i get is, that i need to give my one, or 2 players remaining, lower potodds than 4:1.

But that is already accomplished with a 1/3 bet (which is even almost enough with another 3 outs for one overcard)

I have the feeling though, that it's right to bet more(like 2/3 or 3/4 or maybe even potsized or more with looser players), but is that because i want to be sure i make him fold, or because if he calls me (one or both times) i will get more money from him/them in (almost every) 2 out of 3 games in the long run, or both?

how do the odds of 1 to 1.86 come up for winning with a flushdraw on the flop?
If my chances are 9:38=1:4.2 on the turn and river how is that calculated?

(maybe all of these questions are already answered in the 2 books i just ordered [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

Thx again anyway

[wallenborn]

[ QUOTE ]
I have the feeling though, that it's right to bet more(like 2/3 or 3/4 or maybe even potsized or more with looser players), but is that because i want to be sure i make him fold, or because if he calls me (one or both times) i will get more money from him/them in (almost every) 2 out of 3 games in the long run, or both?

[/ QUOTE ]

There's a chapter about this early in NLHTAP explaining the idea: if you bet a little, villain calls correctly. If you bet a lot, villain folds correctly. You don't want to encourage villain to do the right thing, so you bet the largest amout he'll incorrectly call.

[ QUOTE ]
how do the odds of 1 to 1.86 come up for winning with a flushdraw on the flop?
If my chances are 9:38=1:4.2 on the turn and river how is that calculated?

[/ QUOTE ]

Easy. Let's assume villain has two suited cards and sees two more of the same suit on the flop. At that time there's 47 cards he doesn't know about. On the turn, 9 of them make his flush, thats a probability of 9/47=19.1%, or 4.2 to 1 against. If the turn misses, there's a 9/46=19.6% chance (4.1 to 1 against) for the river to hit his flush. What's the combined probability of the flush hitting on turn or river? Well, he is missing turn _and_ river 80.9*80.4 percent of the time, that's 65.0%. So he makes the flush with at least one card with a probability of 35%, and that's 1.86 to 1 against.

[damedley]

I'm not going to call anyone out specifically, but there's a lot of bad advice in this thread. Like the man said, you only have to worry about him getting one card at a time. You'll get a chance to offer him insufficient odds again on the turn.

Implied odds are the key to this question, though, so don't get too hung up in the 4-to-1 number.