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#1
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This is probably a stupid Hold'em question but it is really bugging me.
Let's suppose I have two hearts and the flop comes with two hearts. I have a [(1 - [(38/47) * (37/46)]) * 100], or 34.97% chance (1.86-to-1) of hitting my flush with two cards to come. So I call bets according to my 1.86-to-1 odds. Then the turn comes with no heart and my odds are down to [(1 - [37/46]) * 100], or 19.57% (4.11-to-1). Should I then call all turn bets because I based my flop bets and calls on being able to see two more cards? Or should I re-calculate my odds based on the 4.11-to-1? Or, would it have been better on the flop to have bet and called based on seeing just one more card, so that my odds on the flop would have been [(1 - [38/47]) * 100], which is 19.15%, or 4.22-to-1 odds? Thanks in advance for all help. |
#2
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I may be off base here, but I think the correct strategy is to use the odds that pertain to what your best guess of your true odds are after the flop.
To clarify (thank god) if there is $20 in the pot when it comes to you and you face a $4 bet, your true pot odds are (4 now + 8 on the turn) risk $12 to win (20 + 16 + 16) 42. Since this is better than 1.86 to 1, you should call now and on the turn if you miss. If it is not heads up, make sure to factor in the probability of having to call raises or reraises. Of course, you also must factor in the chance that not all your outs are good, or that you may not be best even if you hit your hand. Also factor in the probability that you may not have to call a turn bet at all. In fact, (and I may be stating the obvious here) it is the chance of getting the free turn card that may make it more profitable to raise with a flush draw on the flop, even if you are sure you are currently behind. That's my $0.02 -- Scott |
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