mathematically perfect poker

LtJDangle911 · #1 06-01-2007, 04:04 PM

OK, hypothetical question here:

If I was to play mathematically flawless poker using a combination of calculations of:

-implied odds
-reverse implied odds
-pot odds
-independent chip model formula
-hand equity

do you think i'd reach at least ITM frequently?

PS
-I'm talking for the $5 and $10 MTTs...

seke2 · #2 06-01-2007, 04:04 PM

define frequently, ldo

LtJDangle911 · #3 06-01-2007, 04:06 PM

well what is the percentage that very good MTT players get?

also, what does ldo mean?

seke2 · #4 06-01-2007, 04:13 PM

yes, if you played perfect mathematical poker you'd make it ITM a similar amount of time that very good MTT players get (and probably more often at the $5/$10 level), like duh omg

LtJDangle911 · #5 06-01-2007, 04:16 PM

lol ok thanks.

i definitely have never seen that acronym

LtJDangle911 · #6 06-01-2007, 04:22 PM

sorry to bug--but what is the %age that good MTTers usually get for ITM?

sirtimo · #7 06-01-2007, 05:01 PM

>91.455%

PattdownManiac · #8 06-01-2007, 06:07 PM

If you play "mathematically perfect" 100%!!

jeccross · #9 06-02-2007, 12:24 PM

[ QUOTE ]
If you play "mathematically perfect" 100%!!

[/ QUOTE ]

What you've never played a hand perfectly and had a bad beat?
Can I have some of your luck?

NoahL · #10 06-02-2007, 07:38 PM

this thread is absurd.