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#1
04-30-2007, 01:14 AM
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simple question
Mathematically speaking if I have J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] on a
2 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]3 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]6 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] flop and am up against Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]Q [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] I am a 45% favorite to win here's where im confused... therefore, as long as the pot contains 5% or more of my stack, I want to get my money in??? (is this true) is my wording off, what is the equation related to pot odds where I know I want to get my $ in. Thanks 
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#2
04-30-2007, 01:33 AM
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Re: simple question
10% of you stack actually...
say you have 100 chips, and 10 are in the pot with you KJs, and QQ has 100 chips and 10 of their chips are also in. Then you must call 90 more on that flop to win 200 total. 90/200 = .45 (not factoring blinds, which are probably raked anyway)
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#3
04-30-2007, 01:49 AM
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Re: simple question
[ QUOTE ]
10% of you stack actually... say you have 100 chips, and 10 are in the pot with you KJs, and QQ has 100 chips and 10 of their chips are also in. Then you must call 90 more on that flop to win 200 total. 90/200 = .45 (not factoring blinds, which are probably raked anyway) [/ QUOTE ] tyty, i knew it was simple i was over-complicating it. therefore, if 10% of my stack is already in the middle. I never want to just call unless I think he has AA KK JJ or a higher FD. am i right?
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