Why is it better to float without a flushdraw?

[holla]

All fold to a lag co who raises.Hero calls otb and blinds fold.Flop is 238.Lag c-bets as he always do.People are saying that it is better to float when there is no flushdraw on the flop.Why? Chances that villain has a flushdraw is 2,7%.

[Avicenna]

Because Villain thinks that you are raising with a draw. So he will push to punish you. If there is no draw, then he will assume that you have a reasonable hand.

Correct? I'm not sure, just suggesting.

By the way, is floating (on a drawless flop) a winning play?

[ElPhoenix]

I think the reason they believe this is because many opponents these days will be much more apt to fire a 2nd barrel on 2[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] than 2[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] because you have the flush draw a decent amount of the time when the flop is 2[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] in their eyes.

Therefore, when you call on the rainbow flop they are more afraid that you have a legitimate hand that is less likely to fold to further pressure.