Overpair under pressure

[SixT4]

Sorry, couldn't get the converter to work so I used pokerhand.org

Villain was 33/19 with a post flop aggression of 7.

http://www.pokerhand.org/?715468

[orthopak]

I would have called. Based off the betting patterns, I would put the villain on AKc.

He re-raised you.. (QQ-AA, AK)

On the flop, he did a standard 1/2 pot continuation bet. If he had QQ-AA, he may have bet 2/3 pot to protect against the flush.

Turn: He checks, maybe he's giving up on the hand? You bet $3.50 into a $6.50 pot, I would have probably bet $5. Since he only called and didn't re-raise you, I'm assuming he has AKclubs. It's the only hand that seems to fit with my logic.

The river was a blank, so he fired all-in. You raised PF, and you called flop, then fired on the turn. If I were the villain, I'd put you on JJ-AA by your actions.

You beat everything except KK and AA, and by the way he played it, I doubt he has it.

Anybody agree/disagree with my reasoning?

[SixT4]

When the hand was over the villain said he had a flush draw, so I'd assume it'd be AcKc.

AcKc makes sense the way he played it too.

[Route66]

I agree... post flop play doesn't add up for a made hand. I call.