Discounting Chip Value in Pot Odds Calling

[BPA234]

Here is a quick question that I need help on:

If the chips you win lose value after you win them, what % of discount should you use when evaluating a pot odds call?

Typical scenerio is you are in BB with average or better than average stack and your all-in opponent has a range that warrants a call at 2 to 1. But, if you discount the value of the chips than the pots odd reduce and a fold is the right play.

Any thoughts?

[Erik Blazynski]

why are your chips losing value after you win them? I have never heard this theory

[mornelth]

That depends on actual staks and the median stack size at my table. Read Gigabet's theory (and AT LEAST 10 pages of replies) in the Anthology to get a better answer.

[BPA234]

I don't believe that Gigabet's theory applies to what I am asking. My question has to do with the mathematical devaluation of won chips. I DO NOT want to initiate a debate thread. Many posters with more brains and experience than I possess have already debated those issues.

So I reask my question. But, with this qualification, ASSUMING chips won lose value, than what % of discount would one apply?

[A_PLUS]

It is really situationally dependent. I dont think many players actually have a number that they use to discount.

[BPA234]

This is Sklansky's theory and it can be found in Tournament Poker for Advanced Players.

[BPA234]

With the given situation, which I find comes up alot late stage tourney play, I believe that the math should bear out. I will always adjust the math based on a set of given variables. For example, if the tightest rock at the table pushes from early position, I fold 79s getting 2 to 1.

[A_PLUS]

Sounds like you are just applying the standard ICM theories that people use for SNGs. If that is the case, then yeah, there are attainable numbers that you can use. But they are next to impossible to calculate with any kind of accuracy when you move beyond a final table situation