![]() |
#1
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
How many hours would you have to log at 6 tables (100 hands / hour) before you would simultaneously be dealt (assuming all 100 hands take an equal amount of time up over the hour) 2 of the same suit 2-card royal flushes?
True |
#2
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
I don't know what a 2-card royal flush is. AKs? If so, you get AKs 4 times in 1,326 hands. To get the same hand at another table in the same suit will happen 1 time in 1,326. To have them both together is 4 times in 1,758,276 or one time in 439,569. To have that happen in 2 out of 6 tables is one time in 29,305. On average, you'd get one every 293 hours.
|
#3
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
I think he means a royal flush where both hole cards play.
|
#4
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
This is a poorly worded question I think. His question is asking the expected amount of hours he needs to play before you flop two royal flushes at different tables at the same time. You can flop a royal flush by playing any two suited broadway cards; AKs, JTs, QTs, KQs, etc etc.
Probability to flop a royal flush while holding two suited broadway cards 3/50)(2/49)(1/48) = 0.00005102 = 0.005% or basically around 1 in 19600 flops. This is a bit confusing to calculate the probability of getting a royal because first you to calculate the probability of getting suited broadway cards. AKs, AQs, AJs, ATs, KQs, KJs, KTs, QJs, JTs. 9 x 4 different suits = 36 ways to get dealt broadway suited cards 36/1326 = 0.027149321 * 0.00005102 = 0.000001385 or 0.0001385% to flop a royal with random pocket cards. Probability not to flop a royal on one dealt cycle of cards on any of your 6 tables... (1 - 0.000001385)^6 = 0.99999169 Probability of flopping exactly one royal during one dealt set of cards on your 6 tables. 6 * (0.000001385) * 0.99999169^5 = 0.00000831 Chance of flopping at least two royals at the same time = 1 - (0.00000831 +.99999169) = 0 [img]/images/graemlins/frown.gif[/img] My calculator only has so many decimal points and can't figure it out for you. Lets just pretend its less then 0.00000001 to flop two royals at the same time. Probability to flop two royals at the same time at least once, during a 600 hand session of 6tabling where they deal 100hands per table, and you finish each set of hands at the same time. 1 - (0.99999999^100) = Less then 0.000001 This question pisses me off |
#5
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
Why don't we compute the probability to have 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] at THIRTEEN different tables at the same time?
Just because nobody asks? Well, I do ask. So, what is the answer? |
#6
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
[ QUOTE ]
Why don't we compute the probability to have 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] at THIRTEEN different tables at the same time? Just because nobody asks? Well, I do ask. So, what is the answer? [/ QUOTE ] GODDAMN YOU!!!! 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] = one possible combination 1/1326 = 0.000754148 to be dealt... To get it in thirteen different tables at the same time (0.000754148)^13 = 0.000000000000000000000000000000000000000025523144 96 if you get dealt one hand per thirteen tables at the same time. I do see your point though. So many of these questions are ridiculous and utterly pointless. I almost responded to the OP by saying this question is dumb, but since AaronBrown responded so nicely before me... |
#7
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] Why don't we compute the probability to have 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] at THIRTEEN different tables at the same time? Just because nobody asks? Well, I do ask. So, what is the answer? [/ QUOTE ] GODDAMN YOU!!!! 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] = one possible combination 1/1326 = 0.000754148 to be dealt... To get it in thirteen different tables at the same time (0.000754148)^13 = 0.000000000000000000000000000000000000000025523144 96 if you get dealt one hand per thirteen tables at the same time. I do see your point though. So many of these questions are ridiculous and utterly pointless. I almost responded to the OP by saying this question is dumb, but since AaronBrown responded so nicely before me... [/ QUOTE ] Is this calculated correctly? I assume he meant he gets dealt the 9c first every time, THEN the 5s, not just in any old '9 or 5 first' order. What are the odds then? [img]/images/graemlins/wink.gif[/img] |
#8
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
[ QUOTE ]
I do see your point though. So many of these questions are ridiculous and utterly pointless. I almost responded to the OP by saying this question is dumb, but since AaronBrown responded so nicely before me... [/ QUOTE ] Luz, You should have as it simply reads like a brag, or a setup for a future brag. OP =>Look what I did! Yeah! The odds were against me, blah, blah, blah... It happened, enojy it and move on. How does it help you to know? |
#9
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] I do see your point though. So many of these questions are ridiculous and utterly pointless. I almost responded to the OP by saying this question is dumb, but since AaronBrown responded so nicely before me... [/ QUOTE ] Luz, You should have as it simply reads like a brag, or a setup for a future brag. OP =>Look what I did! Yeah! The odds were against me, blah, blah, blah... It happened, enojy it and move on. How does it help you to know? [/ QUOTE ] Dont know if you realized it or not, but many of the questions on this forum are related to getting bad beats and their insanely low probability of happening or other similar ridiculous events. Oh well, guess next time Ill just avoid trying to answer. |
#10
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
what are the odds of getting A2, 34, 56, 78, 9T, JQ, and AK simultaneously in that order while 7 tabling, where the leftmost table on your screen receives the A2, the next receives 34, etc etc, all of the same suit and every other hand flops a straight flush while the other hands flop 4 of a kind?
|
![]() |
|
|