20NL TPGK turn c/r Baluga??

[crushednuts]

I think calling a river push is spewy. What do you beat w/ TP2K on the river? Basically all you beat is a bluff as I don't think someone this passive goes crazy w/ KT or KJ or Kh7h. I would probably just fold the turn because of this guys stats and the c/minraise on turn is a very scary line from such a villain. I would bet he flopped a set here and small pairs are a HUGE part of his range ON THE TURN when he makes the check raise. I agree they aren't that big PF but they are a huge part of his range given the line he took (c/c followed by c/ minraise).

[Waingro]

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You need to look at it in conjunction with VPIP, and as far as I know (please correct if wrong), in general the higher the VPIP/PFR, the higher the AF for the same amount of aggression, so for a villain with such a high VPIP, this is an especially low AF. (Correct?)

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It is the other way around. It is: ((bets+raises)/calls). The higher the VPIP, the less times he will flop tptk+, the less times he will legitimatly have something to bet and raise with. If you only ever play KK+, your AF will be through the roof.

[Ricky_Bobby]

[ QUOTE ]
You need to look at it in conjunction with VPIP, and as far as I know (please correct if wrong), in general the higher the VPIP/PFR, the higher the AF for the same amount of aggression, so for a villain with such a high VPIP, this is an especially low AF. (Correct?)

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I was thinking it was the other way around?

The more hands he is playing the more often he will be missing flops and playing passively.

Or am I wrong?

[Lawman]

[ QUOTE ]
You need to look at it in conjunction with VPIP, and as far as I know (please correct if wrong), in general the higher the VPIP/PFR, the higher the AF for the same amount of aggression, so for a villain with such a high VPIP, this is an especially low AF. (Correct?)

[/ QUOTE ]

I think I agreed until the conclusion. AF is a ratio of bets and raises to calls. If a player is very loose preflop and has an AF of 2, he is betting/raising twice as much as calling - but potentially with "weaker" hands.

A very tight player preflop with an AF of 2 is still betting/raising twice as much as calling but with much "stronger" hands.

Intuitively this would suggest that when players have the same AF, the one with the higher VPIP is the more aggressive. However, I'm not sure that this is entirely relevant in NL (and hence my question), because AF does not include folds and check-folds. What if you took a great relatively tight and aggressive player and made him play 50% of his starting hands but let him play his own game post flop. Would his AF be any different from his normal tighter game? I think the concept does apply in limit because the relationship between starting hand rank and subsequent action is more predictable.

I think it's relevant to this topic because many of us use PT as a mechanism for characterising players and hence putting them on a range. Thoughts anyone?

[orig!naL]

I fold to the min-raise with this marginal of a hand.