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  #1  
Old 09-04-2007, 02:01 PM
orig!naL orig!naL is offline
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Default odds question

I was reading something on 2+2 and I didn't fully understand where a couple numbers are coming from. I understand odds, but I just want to know if I'm missing something here:

Where is this coming from? 100/3.22 = 31.06. (So we need 31% equity to call. Where is the 100/3.22 coming from?)

[ QUOTE ]
You’re UTG with 65s. You open to $7. Two folds to Nit on the button. Nit makes a pot 3bet to $24. You make a pot 4bet to $75. Nit 5bets all in.

Pot Odds:
You have to call $125 to win a pot of $278. You’re getting 278:125, or 2.22:1.

100/3.22 = 31.06. (WHERE IS THE 100 / 3.22 COMING FROM)

Equity:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 22.496% 22.29% 00.20% 18321336 168354.00 { 65s }
Hand 1: 77.504% 77.30% 00.20% 63532548 168354.00 { KK+ }

Are you priced in to call?

No. You need a little over 31% equity to call, and you only have about 22.5%. You can fold the hand without making a mistake.


[/ QUOTE ]
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  #2  
Old 09-04-2007, 02:53 PM
PantsOnFire PantsOnFire is offline
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Default Re: odds question

Let's take a more simple example. You have 3:1 pot odds to call an all-in. To make the call correct, you need to win 1 out of every 4 times. (3:1 means you lose 3 and win 1 in every four attempts). So winning one out of 4 is 1/4*100% or 25% of the time.

Thus, your hand needs to at least 25% to win. A nut flush draw on the flop is 35% to win so a call would be correct.

This a case of converting pot odds or any odds to a percentage. If you are a 2:1 underdog that means you will only win 33% of the time (100/(2+1)).
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  #3  
Old 09-04-2007, 02:57 PM
RemyXO RemyXO is offline
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Default Re: odds question

This is just a conversion from odds to probability in percentages.

To convert odds to probability, you have to add the chances. So, if the odds against you winning are 2.22 to 1, this means that out of 3.22 (2.22 + 1) chances, you have 1 chance of winning. So the probability is thus 1/3.22 = 0.3106 or 100%/3.22 = 31.06%
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  #4  
Old 09-04-2007, 02:57 PM
orig!naL orig!naL is offline
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Default Re: odds question

Thanks very much!
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  #5  
Old 09-04-2007, 03:37 PM
Akatosh Akatosh is offline
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Default Re: odds question

I find it difficult to adapt this math at the pokertable [img]/images/graemlins/frown.gif[/img]
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  #6  
Old 09-04-2007, 04:04 PM
RemyXO RemyXO is offline
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Default Re: odds question

Well, at the poker table you should be operating with odds, because pot odds are much easier to correctly estimate than pot percentages. So, at the table you would actually do the reverse - convert the percentages into odds.

If you know your hand is X% to win the hand, you can quickly do Odds = (100/X - 1) to 1.

If you are 25% to win, odds are 100/25-1 = 3:1. Then check this number against what the pot is laying you.
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  #7  
Old 09-04-2007, 08:53 PM
Fermion5 Fermion5 is offline
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Default Re: odds question

This confused me as well. I just said to hell with pot odds and learned to use pot percentages or probabilities, however you want to say it.

pot percentage= (amount you have to call) / (amount you have to call + amount in the pot). multiply by 100 to get a percentage.
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  #8  
Old 09-05-2007, 05:16 AM
jmitchell42 jmitchell42 is offline
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Default Re: odds question

remy, you said if you know the percentage at the table you would do the opposite. besides doing the first calculation first, how would you quickly know the percentage in order to reverse it? if i worded that strange let me know. sorry.
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