Set over set question

[GrindingIt]

I've recently started playing more NL after playing limit almost exclusively. In the last week or so I've been involved with set over set hands at least 6 or times (2 or 3 times there was even quads versus a set). Pretty much every day I'll have one and sometimes twice a day.

It seems to me I'm seeing this way more than at any point in 2 years of playing limit. If you're playing say 2 to 4k/day how often would this happen? I realize people tend to play lower pairs more in limit so I can see this having a bit of an effect but, still, this must just be an weird aberration?

[Copernicus]

doesnt sound that out of line to me. Just looking at rough numbers and in situations where you and the other player start with a pair and the board matches you both played to the river, and at a 9 handed table:

You get a pair about 6% of all hands, and the board matches you 20% of the time, so you roughly hit a set 1.2% of the hands you are dealt. With 8 other players, the chances of one of them hitting a set is about 8*.012*(1-.012)^7 or about 9% of the time, so there will be a set over set situation involving you about 1 out of every 1000 hands you are dealt, as long as all pairs are played to the river by all players. Since not all pairs will be played to the river, with some being folded if they dont hit the flop, cutting that back to 1 out every 2 or 3000 hands puts your results right in the ballpark.