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#1
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We have JJ on both hands.
25$ NL. 25$ Effective stats. Read on villain is that he go broke with overpairs no matter what flop. 6 handed. We are on CO and opens to 1$. Pot is now 1.40$. Villain reraises to 3.4$ on the button, and then shows us AA. Is it correct to call? --------------------- Same hand as before, but the action goes like this. We are on CO and opens to 2$. Pot is now 2.40$. Villain reraises to 3.75$ (just a normal minraise), and then shows us AA. Is it correct to call? |
#2
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So you KNOW you have JJ against AA but don't know what to do?
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#3
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To answer your question no you don't have odds to play for set value in the first one. If he knows that you know that he has AA then decide for yourself whether he'd fold post-flop.
Call the second one. You have odds to play for set value assuming he won't just fold if you bet post-flop because he knows that you know that he has AA, but if that's the case you should call anyway. |
#4
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[ QUOTE ]
So you KNOW you have JJ against AA but don't know what to do? [/ QUOTE ] lol |
#5
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[ QUOTE ]
Call the second one. You have odds to play for set value assuming he won't just fold if you bet post-flop because he knows that you know that he has AA, but if that's the case you should call anyway. [/ QUOTE ] Could you please back this up with some math? |
#6
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[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] Call the second one. You have odds to play for set value assuming he won't just fold if you bet post-flop because he knows that you know that he has AA, but if that's the case you should call anyway. [/ QUOTE ] Could you please back this up with some math? [/ QUOTE ] First thing you have to accept is that you have to make 11.7 times your investment on average to play for set value. dbitel backed this up with a lot of math in one of his threads that I don't have a link to at the moment. So... after he 3bets pot is $6.15 and he has $21.25 left in his stack. 6.15+21.25 = $27.40 you stand to win. You have to call $1.75. 1.75 times 11.7 = $20.48. 27.4 > 20.48 Call. |
#7
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Okay. But if we know villain has AA, and we already have invested 2$, wouldn't it be a mistake to invest 1.75$ more? Since clearly, calling a raise for 3.75$ would be a mistake right preflop?
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#8
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[ QUOTE ]
Okay. But if we know villain has AA, and we already have invested 2$, wouldn't it be a mistake to invest 1.75$ more? Since clearly, calling a raise for 3.75$ would be a mistake right preflop? [/ QUOTE ] You aren't calling a raise for 3.75...you are calling 1.75. That $2 is no longer yours...it is now a part of the pot. |
#9
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[ QUOTE ]
Okay. But if we know villain has AA, and we already have invested 2$, wouldn't it be a mistake to invest 1.75$ more? Since clearly, calling a raise for 3.75$ would be a mistake right preflop? [/ QUOTE ] Yes, calling a raise for $3.75 would be a mistake, but calling for $1.75 more is correct given your stipulations. The first 2 bucks you put in is no longer yours, at this point you're making a simple odds call. |
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