Poker Tournament Formula Revisited

[Ortho]

Yes, I think that we can safely assume that in any tournament where first prize pays less than 2 buy-ins, that we shouldn't rebuy. Please explain why this isn't a trivial case. I should think that in your example first place would have to pay more than 67.7% of the prize pool for your example to have any relevance.

I agree that Snyder's example doesn't take %age payouts into account, but your example, because you have defined Player A's EV as negative by saying that he must put in an amount that is greater than the maximum he can win, is trivial.