A question on a mid high thread.

[Schizo]

Trying to understand this:

http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/showfl...c=1#Post4434530

[ QUOTE ]

villian raises, you 3 bet w/ KK and villian caps.

Flop is Axx. Bet/call.

Turn is x. Bet/call.

River is K. Bet/call.


AK sometimes 3-bets so you sometimes make 3 off him. vs AA you lose 2 bets. oh well. you gain 1 or maybe 2, so like 1.5 against AK. 3 combos of each. if he thinks you're full of [censored] he could have AQ or AJ. there are 12 each of those, which makes this an easy raise.

[/ QUOTE ]

I understand how we get 3*1=3 combos of AK.
AQ = 3*4=12
AJ = 12

But why do we only "lose" 2 bets when he has AA when we make 3 bets when he has AK and 3-bets. The money on the river is exactly the same if we raise and get 3 bet. Yes, I understand that 1 of those bets are going in there anyway but we still lose or win the same amount.

[AaronBrown]

I'm just guessing here, but I think the question only concerns whether or call or raise on the river. If we call we win one river bet if we win and lose one river bet if we lose. I think the poster is only counting how much extra we lose by raising rather than calling, but he's giving us full credit for all river bets won. That's fine as long as he is consistent.

If we raise and he holds AA, he will raise back, we'll call and lose 3 river bets every time. That's 2 more than we lose from calling.

If we raise and he hold AK, he may fold (we gain 1), call (we gain 2) or raise (we call and gain 3). The wording is confusing because the first sentence says he might reraise, then talks about AA, then he comes back to AK and decides the average win is 1.5. I think this is total river bets won, not the extra river bets won compared to calling.

[x vikram]

MID THREAD??

OMINOUS!