Full Tilt betting abnormality...

MrGrob · #1 01-11-2006, 12:18 PM

I was playing Full Tilt for the 2nd time last night, and a weird betting think happened. On the flop, the 1st player to act went ALL IN for .25 at a 1/2 LIMIT table. When the betting came to me a few seats later (and I would assume it was this way with the others) I COULD ONLY CALL .25 – this is not right. I should be able to complete the bet to $1, should I not? I know about the ½ bet rule etc, but the betting should not be able to be shutdown by an ALL IN player acting 1st with less then a ½ a bet in front of him.

Am I wrong, or should I write Full like I want to get that corrected.

Thanks for the help.

mayday4379 · #2 01-11-2006, 03:01 PM

where you the last to act?

GrannyMae · #3 01-11-2006, 04:55 PM

less than 1/2 and you can only call.

StepBangin · #4 01-11-2006, 04:56 PM

Thats what happens when you only have $0.25 at the table too

MrGrob · #5 01-11-2006, 06:54 PM

Yea, I understand all of that, but this was the 1st bet on this round, and I was not last to act, but I had not acted to this point. Would not ANYONE have the option to raise the betting after he tossed in his last .25? It is not 1/2 a bet, but at the same time, it was not a bet, so how could the betting be closed by a non-bet? It just doesn't make any sense that he can open and shut the betting with .25...he either needs to be unable to bet that small amount, or the betting needs to stay open. The way this went down, just didn't make any sense at all.

Spook · #6 01-11-2006, 07:11 PM

You are correct. You should have had the option to complete the bet or raise another players bet. email support and see if that gets you anything.

The 1/2 bet rule (for grannymaes benefit) is that an aggressive action that is for less than half of a bet does not reopen the betting for anyone who has already acted.