NL50 - AA preflop - action in front - whats the proper line?

[mostman]

Alright - first post - so go easy on me. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

Villain 1 (UTG+1) is 40/13/3 (100)
Villain 2 (SB) is 37/11/2 (200)

Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $0.50 BB (8 handed) Hand History Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: 2+2 Forums)

saw flop|<font color="#C00000">saw showdown</font>

BB ($54.40)
UTG ($160.80)
<font color="#C00000">UTG+1 ($9.10)</font>
MP1 ($19.10)
<font color="#C00000">mostman ($43.25)</font>
CO ($48.80)
Button ($50)
SB ($42.75)

Preflop: mostman is MP2 with A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">UTG+1 raises to $1.5</font>, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">mostman raises to $3</font>, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, SB calls $2.75, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">UTG+1 raises to $10.6 (All-In)</font>, <font color="#CC3333">mostman raises to $46.25 (All-In)</font>, SB folds.

Flop: ...

Final Pot: $60.35

Was this the correct move to shove once villain 2 got all his chips in? Or should I have just flat called allowing villain 2 to call? My thinking was that all of villain 1's chips were enough for me - so why bother running against both of them. Proper?

-Mike