NL Bots on Full Tilt

[BluffTHIS!]

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Dwarrior, this just takes into account VPIP. I think the more relevent information here is the astounding similarities between every single stat (vpip being one of the least complex).

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But VPIP is the one that has the biggest sample size, and one most susceptible to botting, won't you agree? There were 3 theories being thrown: 1) two players just learning together 2) player using bots for PF and then taking over post-flop 3) bot playing almost exclusively with the player only jumping in in rare situations. Only #2 and #3 are illegal and involve botting, and the VPIP in both of these situations would be 100% determined by the bot pre-flop.

My test proves, with almost 99% certainty, that the VPIP of the four accounts in question was not the same, meaning that they did not have the bot playing them. Once you disprove this, doesn't the whole botting argument fall apart?

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The onus is on you to prove that VPIP is both necessary *and* sufficient along to prove/disprove botting, and thus that there aren't one or more stats which are more indicative.