Ruling Question

[Clarkmeister]

Good deal. Thanks everyone.

[JKratzer]

Slight hijack.

What if there are no other players in the hand? If the Q&A goes the same, player B asks THEN acts, is player A allowed to do whatever or is he bound by his previous answer? I would assume he can still fold, but everyone is using the other players as the reason to the original question.

[onegymrat]

Player A can say whatever he wants when it's not his turn to act. His words were said when it was still Player B's turn to act, in which Player B had still not acted. Nothing is binding for him until it's his turn to act, therefore, he has the right to muck, regardless of what he said.

[bav]

[ QUOTE ]
Player A can say whatever he wants when it's not his turn to act. His words were said when it was still Player B's turn to act, in which Player B had still not acted. Nothing is binding for him until it's his turn to act, therefore, he has the right to muck, regardless of what he said.

[/ QUOTE ]

This is not the rule used at The Palms. If a player makes a verbal declaration (in particular, stating he's all-in) whether it's his turn or not, he is committed long as he has cards in front of him. I've seen a drunk fellow do this to himself twice in the span of 10 minutes in the NL2/5 game. He kept shouting "I'M ALL-IN" at random times during play, and the dealer and floor kept warning him "if you ever do that when you have cards, whether it's your turn to act or not, you're pushing all your chips in". Twice he had to push ~$500 in against his will (both times he got called--he lost the first and got lucky and won the 2nd).

[Spook]

A lot of people here need to review the rules of what is binding action. PLayers C, D and E folding have no effect on if A has to call.

The reason A does not have to call is because he declared that he would call when there was no bet, and thus if there is action of a raise, then he is not bound to call. B raised after A said he would call, thus it isn't binding.
If B raises, then A says he will call, and everyone folds to A, A must call. If B raises, A declares a call, and then C calls, A does not have to call DEPENDING on the house rules.

[psandman]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Player A can say whatever he wants when it's not his turn to act. His words were said when it was still Player B's turn to act, in which Player B had still not acted. Nothing is binding for him until it's his turn to act, therefore, he has the right to muck, regardless of what he said.

[/ QUOTE ]

This is not the rule used at The Palms. If a player makes a verbal declaration (in particular, stating he's all-in) whether it's his turn or not, he is committed long as he has cards in front of him. I've seen a drunk fellow do this to himself twice in the span of 10 minutes in the NL2/5 game. He kept shouting "I'M ALL-IN" at random times during play, and the dealer and floor kept warning him "if you ever do that when you have cards, whether it's your turn to act or not, you're pushing all your chips in". Twice he had to push ~$500 in against his will (both times he got called--he lost the first and got lucky and won the 2nd).

[/ QUOTE ]

The Palms rule is specific to an All-in declaration in the NL game.

But that is not the point here anyway. In this case the Player didn't declare an an all-in -- he made a conditional statement "If You Bet I Will Call" This can not be binding because it is specifically against the rules (at least when there are more than two players in the hand)

[El Diablo]

Clarky,

Was this a hypothetical or did it really happen? If so, give us a story, pronto.

[Amanjyaku]

If B is a good provider, someone might take a few minutes and explain to him that stupid questions may provoke stupid answers.