Ruling Question

[Clarkmeister]

Player A calls before the flop, so do 4 others. Flop comes, player A bets like 1/5th his stack. Player B is next with 3 others behind him. He says to Player A "will you call if I put you all in". Player A then says jokingly "I'll call whatever you want". Player B then goes all-in, the other players fold, and Player A folds but his cards haven't yet reached the muck.

Should Player A be forced to call Player B's bet?

[pa3lsvt]

No, action occurred between his verbal declaration and his turn to act. He's simply a jackass.

[ethan]

[ QUOTE ]
Player A calls before the flop, so do 4 others. Flop comes, player A bets like 1/5th his stack. Player B is next with 3 others behind him. He says to Player A "will you call if I put you all in". Player B then says jokingly "I'll call whatever you want". Player B then goes all-in, the other players fold, and Player A folds but his cards haven't yet reached the muck.

Should Player A be forced to call Player B's bet?

[/ QUOTE ]

A?

And my guess would be no, given that between him saying that and his fold B and 3 others have acted.

[rbenuck4]

[ QUOTE ]
Player A calls before the flop, so do 4 others. Flop comes, player A bets like 1/5th his stack. Player B is next with 3 others behind him. He says to Player A "will you call if I put you all in". Player A then says jokingly "I'll call whatever you want". Player B then goes all-in, the other players fold, and Player A folds but his cards haven't yet reached the muck.

Should Player A be forced to call Player B's bet?

[/ QUOTE ]

No. Since there were others to act before action got back to player A, I believe this whole verbal declaration binding garbage doesn't count since the other 3 players have to act before he does.

[Clarkmeister]

Fixed the original. Thanks.

[ColdCaller]

No, since there is action between his verbal declaration at the table (which is really not directly proposing anything, he did not "Yes, I call") and his turn to act.

[psandman]

Evrybody seems to be answering this question as though the issue is whethger or not players acting between Player A and Player B effect whether Player A's action was in turn or not.


That is not the issue. Player A and Player B are not allowed to make a deal such as I'll bet if you promise to call. As far as i am concerned as long as there are other players in the hand Player B should not be allowed to Ask Player A the question and Player B should not be allowed to answer. I know many people think this is just table talk and part of poker, but if that is how you look at it, then it can't be binding because its just table talk not action.

[ColdCaller]

[ QUOTE ]
Evrybody seems to be answering this question as though the issue is whethger or not players acting between Player A and Player B effect whether Player A's action was in turn or not.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yes, we are, because Clarkmeister specifically asked:

[ QUOTE ]
Should Player A be forced to call Player B's bet?

[/ QUOTE ]

[ QUOTE ]
Player A and Player B are not allowed to make a deal such as I'll bet if you promise to call. As far as i am concerned as long as there are other players in the hand Player B should not be allowed to Ask Player A the question and Player B should not be allowed to answer. I know many people think this is just table talk and part of poker, but if that is how you look at it, then it can't be binding because its just table talk not action.

[/ QUOTE ]

Clearly the table talk should not be allowed either, but again, that's not what Clarkmeister asked about.

[andyfox]

Player A should not be forced to call Player B's bet. "I will call" if you do something is not the same as "I call." And if it were somehow construed to mean "I call" it is not binding because it is action out of turn affecting other action.

Player B should be reprimanded and warned by the floor for asking Player A what he will do with others in the pot.

[El Diablo]

Clark,

No.