|
|
|
|
#1
09-01-2007, 06:35 PM
|
|||
|
|||
Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
Ok so I found a range that I think is optimal or very close to optimal . Keep in mind that your calling requirements do change with each and every chip you lose .
Call with the following which is approximately the top 14 % of all hands : A-10+ , K-J+ , Q-J ,A-8S+ , K-9S+ , Q-10S, + 77+ . Your equity for this game should be close to 65% . 
|
|
#2
09-01-2007, 07:00 PM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
Thanks for the math, thats what I was looking for. How much do you think one should loosen up the calling range if you think if their is a possibility(say 50%) that the opponent might stop pushing every hand at some point in the match.
|
|
#3
09-01-2007, 07:54 PM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
Say he tells you that he will push all in for 10 hands only and play normally the rest .
In order to give an idea of what to call with , you have to estimate the chances that you would win when you're down 1.5*5 = 7.5 BB's . If you guess that you should win 58% of the time , then this means you should call with any hand that has an equity > 58% .
|
|
#4
09-01-2007, 08:42 PM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
[ QUOTE ]
Say he tells you that he will push all in for 10 hands only and play normally the rest . In order to give an idea of what to call with , you have to estimate the chances that you would win when you're down 1.5*5 = 7.5 BB's . If you guess that you should win 58% of the time , then this means you should call with any hand that has an equity > 58% . [/ QUOTE ] Im probably misunderstanding you but this does not make sense to me. If im down 7.5 BB against an opponent who is of equal skill level then I will win less than 50% of the time. Im not calling with hands that have less than 50% equity against a random hand. Intuitivly I think that I will have to loosen my calling range over the range you suggested for an opponent who will go all in the whole match, if I think there is a chance that he will only go all in for only the first 5, 10, or 20 hands. Im just not sure how to quantify it. Thanks for your help
|
|
#6
09-01-2007, 10:45 PM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
To be even more precise , instead of talking about win % , you should be talking about $/h .
This can get a bit more complicated if we include the notion of time . So if you expect to win 60% of the time if you fold the first 10 hands and you guess that it should take you 15 minutes , then your $/h = (2*buy-in*0.6 - buy-in -rake) /.25h A buy-in for $100 would convert to (200*0.6-100-5)/0.25h = $60/h . In turn , you may convert this to $/hand . Lets say 100 hands is about 1 hour in heads up . Then $60/100hands =0.6/1hand . Surprisingly this tells us that you should call with almost all hands that have an equity of >= 50% against a random hand . After all , we would like to maximize $/h or $/hand and not our win % .
|
 |
| Thread Tools | |
| Display Modes | |
|
|
Hybrid Mode
