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-   -   Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in NLTRN (http://archives1.twoplustwo.com/showthread.php?t=491487)

mmix85 09-01-2007 05:16 PM

Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in NLTRN
 
a row

In a HU sit and go what range do you guys call with if the opponent has moved all in 4 hands in a row? How much of an edge do you wait for if hes presumably shoving any two cards? However, dont assume he will continue shoving any 2 for the whole match, but he might. Sorry if this question has already been answered before, im new posting here.

jay_shark 09-01-2007 06:00 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a row
 
His range is pretty much any two cards . My intuition tells me you should call with something in the top 10% of all hands and probably closer to the top 15% of all hands .

Our equity if we call with the top 10 % of all hands is approximately :

On average you'll lose 5 bb's and 4 sb's or 5 sb's 4 bb's and call on the tenth hand .

You'll be down to 1360 or 1370 depending on which position you start from and call on the 10th hand with an average equity of 67.8% .

1370*2*0.678 = 1857.72 or 1360*2*0.678 = 1844.16

If you employ this strategy your equity should be just under 1857.72/3000=61.9%

If you call with any hand in the top 20% then your equity should be :

1500-2*(10+20) = 1440 which means you'll lose the blinds on average 4 times before you call .

1440*2*0.6345=1827.36 since the top 20% of all hands wins 63.45% of the time . Notice that this number is less than your equity for calling with the top 10 % . So your optimal calling range must be less than the top 20 % of all hands .

I'm guessing something in between 10 and 20 .

TNixon 09-01-2007 06:12 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
I believe K8 is the cutoff hand for being profitable against any 2.

Can't remember if it's supposed to be suited or not though. Offsuit, I think. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

Anyway, you can call tighter than that to reduce your variance, and win more often when you do call/push, but doing so will also reduce your overall EV (but probably not by a ton).

Also, it's worth considering that most people who are willing to push with any 2 are not necessarily willing to *call* a push with any 2.

jay_shark 09-01-2007 06:35 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
Ok so I found a range that I think is optimal or very close to optimal . Keep in mind that your calling requirements do change with each and every chip you lose .

Call with the following which is approximately the top 14 % of all hands :

A-10+ , K-J+ , Q-J ,A-8S+ , K-9S+ , Q-10S, + 77+ . Your equity for this game should be close to 65% .

mmix85 09-01-2007 07:00 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
Thanks for the math, thats what I was looking for. How much do you think one should loosen up the calling range if you think if their is a possibility(say 50%) that the opponent might stop pushing every hand at some point in the match.

jay_shark 09-01-2007 07:54 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
Say he tells you that he will push all in for 10 hands only and play normally the rest .

In order to give an idea of what to call with , you have to estimate the chances that you would win when you're down 1.5*5 = 7.5 BB's . If you guess that you should win 58% of the time , then this means you should call with any hand that has an equity > 58% .

mmix85 09-01-2007 08:42 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
[ QUOTE ]
Say he tells you that he will push all in for 10 hands only and play normally the rest .

In order to give an idea of what to call with , you have to estimate the chances that you would win when you're down 1.5*5 = 7.5 BB's . If you guess that you should win 58% of the time , then this means you should call with any hand that has an equity > 58% .

[/ QUOTE ]
Im probably misunderstanding you but this does not make sense to me. If im down 7.5 BB against an opponent who is of equal skill level then I will win less than 50% of the time. Im not calling with hands that have less than 50% equity against a random hand. Intuitivly I think that I will have to loosen my calling range over the range you suggested for an opponent who will go all in the whole match, if I think there is a chance that he will only go all in for only the first 5, 10, or 20 hands. Im just not sure how to quantify it. Thanks for your help

mmix85 09-01-2007 08:50 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
Nevermind I understand what you are saying now. You mean the equity of the match not the hands.

jay_shark 09-01-2007 10:45 PM

Re: Calling range for opponent who has gone all in first 4 hands in a
 
To be even more precise , instead of talking about win % , you should be talking about $/h .

This can get a bit more complicated if we include the notion of time .

So if you expect to win 60% of the time if you fold the first 10 hands and you guess that it should take you 15 minutes , then your
$/h = (2*buy-in*0.6 - buy-in -rake) /.25h

A buy-in for $100 would convert to (200*0.6-100-5)/0.25h = $60/h . In turn , you may convert this to $/hand . Lets say 100 hands is about 1 hour in heads up . Then $60/100hands =0.6/1hand
.

Surprisingly this tells us that you should call with almost all hands that have an equity of >= 50% against a random hand . After all , we would like to maximize $/h or $/hand and not our win % .


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