Two Plus Two Newer Archives  

Go Back   Two Plus Two Newer Archives > General Gambling > Sports Betting
FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
  #1  
Old 11-26-2007, 05:07 PM
polkaface polkaface is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2006
Location: Dallas
Posts: 286
Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

[ QUOTE ]
Where are you getting 52.5%? If they pay 2.6-1, you have to win 1/2.6 times, or 27.78% of the time for it to be 0EV.

[/ QUOTE ]

Again, I think the stat is regarding per game and not per parlay.
Reply With Quote
  #2  
Old 11-26-2007, 05:14 PM
kyro kyro is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: May 2004
Location: Melting Sabrina
Posts: 24,320
Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

Oh, I thought we were talking about the same game.

I get a value of 52.70% as breakeven. But if you pick each game separately, you'll profit at 52.70%, so what's the question?

(Also, I meant 1/3.6 in my previous post, not 1/2.6)
Reply With Quote
Reply


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 03:41 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.