Game theory and bluffing question

[SeanC]

Hi,

When balancing your plays (betting, checking, calling, check-raising) between having nothing/having something, is an optimal balance generally where you're bluffing 50% of the time? It seems to make intuitive sense if you either were bluffing or had the nuts and were all-in by the river as that would simply be unexploitable, but its practicality is obviously limited. What's the practical method of balancing plays with hands that are just straight bluffs, hands that are valuable but can't really go all-in and hands that have enough equity to get it all-in?

That may be an overly ambitious question, but any advice you can give would be great. If you could just solve one simple example showing the method, I can just run with that.

Thanks.