Pre-flop exploitive play question

[SeanC]

Hey,

I'm working out the corrective exploitive 3-bet range against ~5% PFR: 88+,AJs+,KQs,AQo+,KQo. I'm assuming the following (don't worry about correcting the ranges or assumptions, I'm just learning the method):

He’s folding 88, AJs and KQo, or 22 combinations to a 3-bet, or 23% of his range. Let’s say he’s calling with 99, TT, KQ and AQ, and 4-betting with JJ+ and AK. Therefore:

Thus, re-raising him 23% of the time will yield immediate profit.

Now, that much makes sense (correct me if I'm wrong there). My question is now how can I accurately raise him ~23% of the time? 23% of his PFR range would be about 20 combinations, but I can't simply choose 5 suited hands to RR him with because I'm now looking at the probability of him getting dealt a raising hand (~5%) and me getting dealt one of those 20 combinations (~1%), which would be .05*.01=.0005--and I need to be 3-betting more often than that. Is the answer to have 23% of my range be a 3-bet as then it would be .05*.23=.01%, what it needs to be?

And then, when you're going to re-raise him with weakish hands and know he's going to call with ~99, TT, AQ or KQ, what type of hands do you choose? Ax, Kx, Qx don't seem to make sense as they are often dominated. Suited connectors with a T or 9 run into set problems? I'd probably go with 87s and worse?