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  #1  
Old 09-20-2007, 02:28 AM
rsk_anlst_13 rsk_anlst_13 is offline
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Default Pokertracker noob linqo question

When someone in a forum says "villain was playing __%/__%/__%, does this mean

VPIP/Pre-flop raise/went to showdown?

I am pretty sure the first two are right, not so sure about the third. I want to make sure before I go quoting stats wrong and getting ripped for it.

Thanks ahead of time.
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  #2  
Old 09-20-2007, 02:31 AM
OziBattler OziBattler is offline
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Default Re: Pokertracker noob linqo question

welcome to 2+2. the answer you seek is in the FAQ at the top of this forum.
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  #3  
Old 09-20-2007, 02:39 AM
Ender1553 Ender1553 is offline
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Default Re: Pokertracker noob linqo question

FAQ will tell you the third thing is the "agression factor," but I had to dig to find out how that's figured...

it's (# times bet + # times raise) / (# times call)
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  #4  
Old 09-20-2007, 03:10 AM
rsk_anlst_13 rsk_anlst_13 is offline
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Default Re: Pokertracker noob linqo question

I am slightly embarassed and basking in noobness.
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