iwtsth quick question

[the machine]

1-2 nl last night at foxwoods. 3 way to the flop, one raise to 15, call, and an AI for 38 total. original raiser calls and pf caller calls.

flop 10 6 3 original raiser checks, other player bets 20. original raiser folds. AI player rivers a King to scoop with KQ. other guy in the hand doesnt show. original raiser says IWTSTH, dealer taps on the muck and shows 68[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].

i told him i think its pretty bad to do and he said i know ive never done it before, but i wanted to see it yadda yadda.

now given that its an all in preflop and post flop betting does the original raiser have any right more so then the common IWTSTH?

(sorry its a choppy post)

[*TT*]

If he is allowed to see the hand, then let him see the hand - dont be bothered by it, there is no extra allotment of "rights" if an opponent is all in, the same rules always apply. Its not worth rocking the boat over. If he is doing it every hand then thats a horse of another color - call the floor.

[Diana Ross Fan]

[ QUOTE ]
If he is allowed to see the hand, then let him see the hand - dont be bothered by it, there is no extra allotment of "rights" if an opponent is all in, the same rules always apply. Its not worth rocking the boat over. If he is doing it every hand then thats a horse of another color - call the floor.

[/ QUOTE ]

I agree.

[Seb86]

Whats the point of calling the floor if its allowed ?

[chucky]

To make sure that people know not to abuse the rule.

[Seb86]

and what if the player dont care ? There is noway he is gonna get ban for this so its basically just intimidation.

[psandman]

[ QUOTE ]
Whats the point of calling the floor if its allowed ?

[/ QUOTE ]

He said call the floor if the player is doing it every hand, that is generally not allowed and most places a floor will take away a players right to ask if he is abusing it this way.

[the machine]

first off let me rename the players in the hand to make it easier.

PF raiser is A
PF caller is B
PF all in is C

A says post hand i want to see B's hand.

now with post flop action who shows first in this spot. does player C have to show first since no bet was called. obv if there was a side pot player C would not be showing his hand first.

thinking about all that made me wonder about the IWTSTH, while obv he can do it no matter what, i was wondering if any other action (post flop bet) would make player B have to show first had C not flipped his hand up with his rivered TP2K.

(i personally feel that IWTSTH is it more justifiable when a certain person was supposed to be the first to show, as opposed to someone just winning the pot and wanting to see the losing players hand)

[pfapfap]

It depends on the room. Some have last aggressive action if no action on river. Some go in order around the table.

[Diamond Lie]

I believe at foxwoods its whoever is in position in this situation, right?