"Jesus" called with A9s pre-flop

[KampfHase]

Hi there, [img]/images/graemlins/grin.gif[/img]

there was this tournament I saw on tv, lately. This one guy went all-in pre-flop with 55 (if I remember correctly; not higher than 77 though, for sure). It was folded to "Jesus" Ferguson who held A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]9[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. The guy had him covered but Jesus called after he gave it a long thinking.
Ferguson lost and was eliminated because he didn't hit.
Afterwards, being interviewed, he stated that he "was getting 2:1 for [his] money" and that he was "only a small dog against that hand".
Now, my question is: How did he come to this conclusion, and more important, why did he call?

I figure:
Jesus thought: "Well, this guy is a short stack and he would go all-in pre-flop (early position, no raise in front of him) with any pocket pair below and including JJ.
I'm getting 2:1 pot odds. My hand (A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]9[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]) is a 43,5% (according to PokerStove) dog against JJ-22 (56,5%).
Now, I'm getting 33% pot odds to 43,5% hand odds. If the hand odds % are bigger than the pot odds %, it's a correct call. So, call." [img]/images/graemlins/cool.gif[/img]

Is that right, or just me thinkin' nonsense? [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]
Is this the wrong way to make pre-flop call descisions like this in a tourney? Additionally, does this way of making pre-flop descisions apply to cash game as well? I wouldn't call a pre-flop push with A9s in a cash game, that's for sure, except if I am stone-certain that villain holds 88 or below.

Thanks in advance [img]/images/graemlins/grin.gif[/img]
[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]