preflop implied odds quesssssstion

[Yoshi63]

Stars 20r (hope this is fine for HSMTT). Villain is 37/25/inf over just 16 hands, I think I recognize him as a decent player. My image is pretty loose, and probably somewhat bad (thus I don't expect him to be doing this against me w/ anything but a premium).

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t200 (9 handed)

UTG (t14410)
UTG+1 (t17890)
MP1 (t6695)
MP2 (t8252)
MP3 (t8617)
Hero (t17116)
Button (t7625)
SB (t15500)
BB (t22875)

Preflop: Hero is CO with J[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls t200, MP1 calls t200, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to t950</font>, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">BB raises to t2600</font>, UTG+1 folds, MP1 folds, Hero...

Does anyone disagree with calling, intending to fold to a reasonable cbet on any flop not containing a jack?

Edit: Oh and the limpers were playing 50/10 and 30/10, limping a decent ammount.