Please help me understand this math problem

[Shillx]

Right but the 66% refers to the times when you raise and always get 3-bet when beat. I don't know if this hand applies (haven't read it) but it doesn't in many cases. Like if you estimate that you will get 3-bet just 50% of the time time you are beat (assume you always call it) then you need 60% equity to raise.

The 66.6% rule is good in situations where you have a strong hand and the other guy may or may not have outdrawn you. Say you flop a set and bet the flop and turn. Now a 3rd [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] hits on the river and your opponent bets. He is almost certainly going to 3-bet a flush (and call if he made 2-pair or something) so you need to be good 2/3 of the time to raise. There are other cases where you don't need anywhere near that much equity to get a value raise in.

Brad

[threads13]

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55% = Will you be "good" 55% of the time when your bet is called?

66% = Breakeven point for raising on the river if you intend to pay off a river 3-bet. Win 1, lose 2.

There is a flaw in the 66% number though, because you would never call the 3-bet if you always lost 2. Thus, as long as you expect to be good even 5% or so when you call the 3-bet, you can raise with slightly less than the 66% chance of being good.

Hope this clears everything up.

[/ QUOTE ]

I see. I had a error in my thinking. I was thinking the "2" from the 2:1 odds is coming from putting two bets in, but really it is putting in the two extra bets, right?