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  #1  
Old 08-19-2007, 05:38 AM
JackAll JackAll is offline
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Default Probability of flopping 2pr?

What's the probability of flopping 2pr in nlhe?
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  #2  
Old 08-19-2007, 12:09 PM
mykey1961 mykey1961 is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

Assuming you don't have a pair in your hand to start with:

You will flop exactly 2 pair:

(44/50*6/49*3/48)*3 = 99/4600 = 0.0215
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  #3  
Old 08-19-2007, 05:38 PM
Poker monkey Poker monkey is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

This is correct - 2.2% - I looked it up in Super System to check...
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  #4  
Old 08-19-2007, 07:17 PM
BruceZ BruceZ is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

[ QUOTE ]
This is correct - 2.2% - I looked it up in Super System to check...

[/ QUOTE ]

If you looked it up in Super System, then you should have caught his error in arithmetic. His formula is correct, but it comes to 99/4900 =~ 2.02%, not 99/4600 =~ 2.15%. Super System reports this correctly (original version, table XIX, AKs flops A-K and smaller card).

Note that this does not include 2-pair made with a pair on the flop (like AK flops A22). If we include these, it would add another 2.02% as the probability is exactly the same for this type of 2-pair.
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  #5  
Old 08-20-2007, 02:49 AM
mykey1961 mykey1961 is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

yep somehow when putting 50*49*48 into the calculator I hit 50*46*48 giving 110400 instead of the proper 117600
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  #6  
Old 08-20-2007, 05:12 PM
helter skelter helter skelter is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

[ QUOTE ]
Assuming you don't have a pair in your hand to start with:

You will flop exactly 2 pair:

(44/50*6/49*3/48)*3 = 99/4600 = 0.0215

[/ QUOTE ]

What do these numbers represent? I was trying to figure this out using the poker odds calculator and subtracting out trips and full houses and came up with a different number.

This appears simpler and more precise anyway, so I would like to know how to construct this type of formula for 2 pair, trips, and full house.
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  #7  
Old 08-20-2007, 08:27 PM
BruceZ BruceZ is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Assuming you don't have a pair in your hand to start with:

You will flop exactly 2 pair:

(44/50*6/49*3/48)*3 = 99/4600 = 0.0215

[/ QUOTE ]

What do these numbers represent? I was trying to figure this out using the poker odds calculator and subtracting out trips and full houses and came up with a different number.

This appears simpler and more precise anyway, so I would like to know how to construct this type of formula for 2 pair, trips, and full house.

[/ QUOTE ]

Suppose that we hold QJ (the calculation is the same for any non-pair). There are 3 Jacks, 3 Queens, and 44 other cards out of the 50 cards remaining. The probability that the flop comes xJQ or xQJ is the probability that the first card is one of the x other cards (44/50), times the probability that the second card is a J or Q (6/49), times the probability that the last card makes 2-pair (Q when 2nd card was J, or J when 2nd card was Q, 3/48). Then multiply all of this by 3 since the x can come in any of 3 positions.

See this post and its links for more on trips, full house, etc.
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  #8  
Old 08-22-2007, 12:13 PM
helter skelter helter skelter is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

Thanks for the explanation and the links. So, using J2, if I then want a subset of the 2 pair flops where my J will be the top pair, then I can take the A,K,Q's out and I get

32/50*6/49*3/48 = .0147

Is this correct?
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  #9  
Old 08-22-2007, 05:11 PM
BruceZ BruceZ is offline
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Default Re: Probability of flopping 2pr?

[ QUOTE ]
Thanks for the explanation and the links. So, using J2, if I then want a subset of the 2 pair flops where my J will be the top pair, then I can take the A,K,Q's out and I get

32/50*6/49*3/48 = .0147

Is this correct?

[/ QUOTE ]

Multiply that expression by 3, but you already did that since the number is correct.
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