60% vs 40% for a pair...confused?

[manku]

I'm reading this new "poker for pigeons" book, and it claims that in 5 card draw, dealing clockwise, the odds of being dealt a pair are 40%....the odds of 5 consecutive cards, like holdem, are 60%.

call me an idiot, but i don't understand this at all.

is this bad information, or is it just really confusing?

thanks.

manku

[btmagnetw]

what?

[Gonso]

Bottom of page:

http://www.pokergamingzone.com/pokerodds2.htm

[JayEmm]

[ QUOTE ]
what?

[/ QUOTE ]

huh?

[soko]

I'm pretty sure I am right when I say that any 5 randomly drawn cards from a deck of 52 completely random and unknown cards will have the same percent chance of having a pair among them.

[infinity235]

5 consecutive cards == straight? see gonsos link.

[infinity235]

oh hold on, i get what you mean now...

I agree with soko. for holdem, you need to look up the odds that the board pairs by the river, not that any of your hole cards pair...

[chillrob]

If you mean that you have a 60% chance of getting a pair in Holdem, that is because you have 7 cards to work with, not just 5.