AKs, trying to learn a little more about the math of poker.

[Pog0]

NL400, 6max (5 handed)

14/9 player UTG raises to $16
Hero in SB raises to $44 with A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
UTG calls

Flop ($83) T[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]6[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]

I bet $70, he thinks and pushes for effectively $400 more.

386:622. I've gotta have 38.5%+ equity.

What's a fair range distribution (assuming I have A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]?)

Would you rather call with A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] or A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] here?

* * *

Scenario 2.

Same thing except I'm SB, Villain is BB.

UTG raises to 16, I raise to 44, BB cold calls, UTG folds.

Same flop action. Does this change your play? Does this change your range distribution for villain?