QQ from upfront early in Warmup...Is this ok?

[Todd Terry]

Baltostar:

I think the first thing you ever learn in microeconomics is to ignore sunk costs. You are faced with a decision as to whether to put in a specific number of chips, 1200. The "implied odds", which is really the implied expectation, are what you expect to win if you hit, multiplied by the percentage that you hit. It's really that simple. And flopping a set or better is 7.5:1, the 7:1 I stated earlier was off the top of my head, not that it makes a difference.

I know enough about game theory to know that game theory has either virtually or absolutely nothing to do with this problem, depending on your perspective.

[Bond18]

This seems like a super easy call for set odds considering its reraised pot. Did i completely miss that day in school?

[kleath]

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No its not, you're process is really terrible and makes no sense.

1800 is absolutely irrelevant to the matter of implied odds, 1200 is your number.

You arent even taking into account the current pot odds, which lessens the implied odds you need.

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Trust me. I know my game theory. The "event" is the flop, not each time the action comes to you.

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Clearly you do not, because your entire analysis is wrong at the core. Calling 1200 is the only relevant decision point, current pot figures into the amount we have to get postflop you dont have to get the full 8.5x, and your amount put in on past actions is totally completely absolutely irrelevant, you are flat out lying when you say you know your game theory bro, quit lying over the internet ish just isnt right.

[Todd Terry]

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This seems like a super easy call for set odds considering its reraised pot. Did i completely miss that day in school?

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That's what I thought, until Ansky, who usually knows what he's talking about, said it was close, which caused me to ask how it was close, which got us into the spot we're in now.

[baltostar]

Doesn't matter if you are closing the action or not. Your risk is the total amount of chips you must commit to continue play past the event (in this case the flop).

Misunderstanding this is exactly how so many players get pulled into playing for set value when they don't have the necessary implied odds. They limp, someone min-raise, they re-calc their odds based on cost to call, and call again, even though their true implied odds are no longer their.

[mikeJ]

Call pf, what's all the fuss about?

[PrayingMantis]

[ QUOTE ]
Doesn't matter if you are closing the action or not. Your risk is the total amount of chips you must commit to continue play past the event (in this case the flop).

Misunderstanding this is exactly how so many players get pulled into playing for set value when they don't have the necessary implied odds. They limp, someone min-raise, they re-calc their odds based on cost to call, and call again, even though their true implied odds are no longer their.

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[Eagles]

Baltostar,
Plz just stop posting him, like can a mod ban him. Because every thread he posts in he makes ridiculous arguments that are obviously wrong and derails the thread from potentially good discussion. Or maybe an alternative just have a baltostar discusses poker theory thread and only allow him to post there.

[kleath]

[ QUOTE ]
Doesn't matter if you are closing the action or not. Your risk is the total amount of chips you must commit to continue play past the event (in this case the flop).

Misunderstanding this is exactly how so many players get pulled into playing for set value when they don't have the necessary implied odds. They limp, someone min-raise, they re-calc their odds based on cost to call, and call again, even though their true implied odds are no longer their.

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Are you a troll or do you really just not understand at all? The amount you're committing to continue is 1200, FORGET ABOUT THE ORIGINAL RAISE AMOUNT, its completely irrelevant to the mathematical portion of determining implied odds.

[Todd Terry]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Doesn't matter if you are closing the action or not. Your risk is the total amount of chips you must commit to continue play past the event (in this case the flop).

Misunderstanding this is exactly how so many players get pulled into playing for set value when they don't have the necessary implied odds. They limp, someone min-raise, they re-calc their odds based on cost to call, and call again, even though their true implied odds are no longer their.

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QFT. Baltostar, I actually found some of your theory posts mildly interesting. But you are absolutely dead wrong here, and really should stop posting this, since it's not a matter of opinion, and you might confuse someone.