The Issue Again...

[Copernicus]

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I don't think his claim rests on decree. He can actually demonstrate ownership.

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Oh, I doubt that. He can say "I bought it from so and so who bought it from so and so" and on down the line, but eventually it ends with "and I assume that person got it legitimately." For all of us, we need to pick some point in time at which prior potential illegitimate transactions "don't count", and decree legitimacy from that point forward. In my opinion, this blows up the moral justification for a property rights based morality.

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What is a "property rights based morality"?