Variance Problem

[JOHNY CA$H]

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A quick approximation of Paxinor's thread is to figure, in BB, the downswing ur interested (2000), divide by STDDEV/1000 (147BB), and square the result, which will approximate k number of hands. For example, a 20+ downswing should be expected (95% confidence) every (2000/147)Sq.* k # of hands or 13.605sq k hands = approx 185k hands. Therefore, can expect 10+ downturn every 46k, 15+ every 104k and 20+ every 185k or about 2 times a year at your rate of play.
I dont know how to answer your question # 2) since it seems like it would be highly dependent on how many hands it took to suffer the first 20+ downturn. By my approximation method, one could expect a 40+ downturn every 740,000 hands (about 1 time every 2 years at your rate of play). In fact, I just suffered a 40.62BB downturn over 128k hands - so it happens!!!! And, believe me, its no fun.

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Yeah, that's what got me thinking about this, I suffered two 20 buy in downswings within a 4 month period, at a time in my life where I was reevaluating my future in poker. How often something like this happens certainly has to be factored into the equation, for both monetary and psychological reasons. Assuming you meant 40.62 Buy in Downswing, definitely no fun.