Does Villain owe me money?

[Seb86]

[ QUOTE ]
No, if his hand gets killed, he owes no money.

He only owes $6 if he gets $6 worth of action. He has no action here.

[/ QUOTE ]

that sounds VERY clever.

I am putting 20$ in the pot preflop, on the flop I dont know what to do I ask my buddy and show him my cards, floor comes and kills my hand.

Your rulling would be that I take my 20$ back ?

[youtalkfunny]

No, my ruling would not be to give you $20 back, because in your example, I would not rule to kill your hand.

In the OP, the man put $0 in the pot, and received $0 worth of action. As Bav mentioned above, if by some miracle this scumsucker wins the pot, he ain't getting it.

[Al_Capone_Junior]

Wow. Averaging $1.20/hour. Please tell me you don't wear a parka, hat, glasses and headphones.

Your mistake was not complaining the first time scumboy took an angle shot. Trying to play without buying in is not something that should be let slide.

Whether scumboy owes you is quite irrelevant, because he aint gonna pay.

Al

[psandman]

I disagree that he didn't receive action.

What if everyone had folded to his initial raise before anyone questioned whether he really had money coming. He would have picked up the blinds.

I don't think this guy owes $6. I do think that this guy should be parred from the room for taking this shot twice in one night.

[gobbledygeek]

[ QUOTE ]
hey OP:

are you the same gobbledygeek that owns the domain gobbledygeek.com?

[/ QUOTE ]

No.

[gobbledygeek]

[ QUOTE ]
No, if his hand gets killed, he owes no money.

He only owes $6 if he gets $6 worth of action. He has no action here.

[/ QUOTE ]

This is more the sort of type of answer I'm looking for (while the others regarding what I or the dealer should have done are worthwhile suggestions, they are actually irrelevant to the original question).

I'll admit that I'm confused by "he only owes $6 if he gets $6 worth of action". Can you clarify what you mean by that? He's raised preflop, had multiple callers, plus called a flop bet; isn't that action?

ETA: Ok, saw your other response saying that he's literally put $0 dollars into the pot (since he actually isn't behind money).

[banzi]

[ QUOTE ]

So then a-hole sits back down at the table again. Another dealer (a rookie) deals him some cards in EP; on his turn he taps the table and says "raise up to four" and the dealer then asks if he has money behind. A-hole mumbles something that sounds to me like "forty" but he could just be repeating his raise of "four". No one has noticed whether he has actually given any money to a chip runner. I coldcall in SB, flop a set and lead out. A-hole calls, MP raises and action comes back to me where I 3bet.

[/ QUOTE ]

Raise to $4 PF, calls $2 on the flop - sounds like he owes the pot $6 to me. Sad thing is you'll never see it, and if this is in LV I would really like to know what room this was in.

[gobbledygeek]

BTW: Not a Vegas casino; just a local lower mainland casino in B.C.

[youtalkfunny]

Allow me to clarify my opinion:

His hand was killed BECAUSE he didn't put any money in. You can't kill his hand for that reason, AND make him put money in--if he puts the money in, then his hand shouldn't be killed!

[gobbledygeek]

[ QUOTE ]
Allow me to clarify my opinion:

His hand was killed BECAUSE he didn't put any money in. You can't kill his hand for that reason, AND make him put money in--if he puts the money in, then his hand shouldn't be killed!

[/ QUOTE ]

Thanks, that makes perfect sense. It is now clear to me that a-hole does not owe me money, therefore no reason to bring it up with him if I ever play with him again.