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  #1  
Old 11-25-2007, 07:49 PM
asdfasdf32 asdfasdf32 is offline
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Default Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

I googled this question and got this response:

"Lets look at a simple 2-team parlay using a real example, the Monday Night Football game from this past weekend. St Louis –10.5 over the Rams and a game total of 43.5. Parlaying a side and the total gives us four combinations:

a) St Louis –10.5 and Over 43.5
b) St Louis –10.5 and Under 43.5
c) Chicago +10.5 and Over 43.5
d) Chicago +10.5 and Under 43.5

The odds of any one of these plays being a winner are 1-in-4 so the actual odds would be 3/1. In actual fact, most books pay 2.6/1 (you see it commonly written as 13/5) assuming all bets are at stand payoffs (-110). "

Okay, seems fair enough, but...from what I've seen on this site 60% is the highest attainable win rate against the spread & o/u over the long haul. This number is probably too high, but let's go with it anyways. If someone is 60% to win against the spread and 60% to win against the over/under, they'll win both on a single game 36% of the time. By using the same math, that makes them 12.96% to win against the spread & the o/u on both games. This makes the odds ~6.7 to 1 instead of the 3 to 1 quoted in the article. Is my logic goofed up?

Straighten me up fellas.
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  #2  
Old 11-25-2007, 07:55 PM
Riverman Riverman is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

because sportsbooks like to make money?
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  #3  
Old 11-25-2007, 08:02 PM
Lori Lori is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

-110 and -110 is +264, it's near enough.
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  #4  
Old 11-25-2007, 08:04 PM
Lori Lori is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

[ QUOTE ]
to win against the spread & the o/u on both games

[/ QUOTE ]

There's only one game.
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  #5  
Old 11-25-2007, 08:18 PM
asdfasdf32 asdfasdf32 is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
to win against the spread & the o/u on both games

[/ QUOTE ]

There's only one game.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yeah. I just realized that mistake. So, considering that, if someone is more than 52.5% on a 2-team parlay, they are +EV, correct?
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  #6  
Old 11-25-2007, 09:42 PM
ImStillBen ImStillBen is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

52.5% on 2-team parlays? Where do I sign up for the newsletter?
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  #7  
Old 11-26-2007, 03:51 PM
asdfasdf32 asdfasdf32 is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

[ QUOTE ]
52.5% on 2-team parlays? Where do I sign up for the newsletter?

[/ QUOTE ]

....per game.
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  #8  
Old 11-26-2007, 04:42 PM
kyro kyro is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

Where are you getting 52.5%? If they pay 2.6-1, you have to win 1/2.6 times, or 27.78% of the time for it to be 0EV.
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  #9  
Old 11-26-2007, 05:07 PM
polkaface polkaface is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

[ QUOTE ]
Where are you getting 52.5%? If they pay 2.6-1, you have to win 1/2.6 times, or 27.78% of the time for it to be 0EV.

[/ QUOTE ]

Again, I think the stat is regarding per game and not per parlay.
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  #10  
Old 11-26-2007, 05:14 PM
kyro kyro is offline
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Default Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?

Oh, I thought we were talking about the same game.

I get a value of 52.70% as breakeven. But if you pick each game separately, you'll profit at 52.70%, so what's the question?

(Also, I meant 1/3.6 in my previous post, not 1/2.6)
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