effective odds?

[headofmike]

I'm having trouble grasping this concept. Can someone break it down for me?

[Fantam]

I am assume that you are talking about implied odds.

When you are looking at immediate odds, you are looking at how much the pot is offering you to call a bet. Say there are 6sb in pot on the flop and it is 1sb bet for you to call, then you are receiving immediate odds of 6:1 to call.

If it is likely that someone (perhaps a preflop raiser, who is yet to act after you) will raise that flop, then you wont really be getting 6:1 to call, as you will have to call another bet to stay in the pot. So your effective odds for calling the 1st bet may have only been something like 7:2 or say 8:2 depending upon whether there are any other callers.

Hope that this helps.

[fretelöo]

Not sure what you mean, but I assume it's this:

Two aggressives bet and raise before you. You get 7:2 (say) immediate odds. However, given the nature of the board, a 3bet/cap isn't out of the question so that you must count in the possibility of having to deal with 13:4 effective odds (because in immediate odds you'd get 13:2, which is even better than the first time, so you'd be forced to call those too).

[headofmike]

[ QUOTE ]
Not sure what you mean, but I assume it's this:

Two aggressives bet and raise before you. You get 7:2 (say) immediate odds. However, given the nature of the board, a 3bet/cap isn't out of the question so that you must count in the possibility of having to deal with 13:4 effective odds (because in immediate odds you'd get 13:2, which is even better than the first time, so you'd be forced to call those too).

[/ QUOTE ]
Thanks

[marchron]

It's most often used when you have a mediocre hand and the odds say you can call one bet profitably but not two; however, other players who are already in for one bet will almost always call, boosting your odds.

Like say you have something like 97s in the BB. Two players limp, the Button raises, and the SB folds. Your immediate odds are 5½-1, which are decent but not great odds. But when you factor in that the other two limpers will be coming along, your effective odds become 7½-1, and your hand is much more valuable.

[Point Blank]

[ QUOTE ]
I am assume that you are talking about implied odds.

When you are looking at immediate odds, you are looking at how much the pot is offering you to call a bet. Say there are 6sb in pot on the flop and it is 1sb bet for you to call, then you are receiving immediate odds of 6:1 to call.

If it is likely that someone (perhaps a preflop raiser, who is yet to act after you) will raise that flop, then you wont really be getting 6:1 to call, as you will have to call another bet to stay in the pot. So your effective odds for calling the 1st bet may have only been something like 7:2 or say 8:2 depending upon whether there are any other callers.

Hope that this helps.

[/ QUOTE ]

guys ... I'm a little lost ...

Effective Odds are covered briefly in TOP (just before the chapter on Implied Odds & Reverse Implied Odds)

and the concept is a little confusing ...

the concept is a matter of odds calculation when there are more cards to come:

<font color="green">"... you must think not in terms of the immediate pot odds but in terms of the total amount you might lose versus the total amount you might win." </font>

whereas Implied Odds are extra bets you may win if you hit your hand ...

the chapter uses a HU situation with hero having a four flush

the pot is small ... 2sb then villain bets ... so you are getting 3-1 on your call
your flush draw will come in 38% off the time (1-3/4 : 1 odds) ... but this is calculation is connected over the flop&amp;turn

so your "real pot odds" must include the turn bet ...

so you are not just calling the flop bet you call the turn bet ... 2sb+1sb+1bb for 1sb +1bb ... 5 : 3 (i.e ... your initial flop call was wrong)

now we can add 'implied odds' to the effective odds if villain will call on the river ... so add 1bb x% of time ... so with implied odds, are call is now +EV if villain calls enough