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#1
10-09-2006, 11:30 AM
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running it twice
was watching a High Stakes poker and saw a hand in which Matesow and farha decided to run the flop twice (Mat had TT, farha AA). Matasow hit his set on the river of the last run, farha's AA held up on the first run, for a split pot. Why would farha agree to run it twice if he knew he had an advantage? Seems he knowingly gave Matasow twice the opportunity to hit and crack his aces.
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#2
10-09-2006, 12:36 PM
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Re: running it twice
Reduces variance. If you ran the flop 10 times, typically Matasow would win 2 times and Farha 8, netting Farha a nice profit nearly every time.
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#3
10-09-2006, 03:33 PM
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Re: running it twice
[ QUOTE ]
was watching a High Stakes poker and saw a hand in which Matesow and farha decided to run the flop twice (Mat had TT, farha AA). Matasow hit his set on the river of the last run, farha's AA held up on the first run, for a split pot. Why would farha agree to run it twice if he knew he had an advantage? Seems he knowingly gave Matasow twice the opportunity to hit and crack his aces. [/ QUOTE ] Its really a matter of taste. Folks who are better at this kinda thing than I am have run the math and your expected value does not change whether you run it once or more than once. So in the long run it makes no difference. There are obvious psychological reasons a person might want to run it more than once. Me, I prefer to stick to once, let the cards fall where they may, but I'll go along with someone who really wants to run it more than once if it makes them happy, but I'd rather run it three times than two in that situation.
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#7
10-10-2006, 01:42 PM
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Re: running it twice
Um...no thats not correct...Why on earth would Matusow agree to that if that was the case (which it most definately is not)
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#8
10-11-2006, 12:48 AM
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Re: running it twice
[ QUOTE ]
When you run it twice Farha could have won double the pot if he won both [/ QUOTE ] Must be a joke...but on the off hand it isn't. When you run it twice, there's 3 possibilities: a) you win both, you win the pot. b) you lose both, you lose the pot c) you win one/lose one, you split the pot. When you're the favorite, by running it twice you'll very rarely lose the pot. You're giving up some out right wins to prevent more outright losses (more splits). The EV doesn't change, you're just reducing the likelihood of the extreme results.
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#9
10-11-2006, 09:11 AM
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Re: running it twice
[ QUOTE ]
was watching a High Stakes poker and saw a hand in which Matesow and farha decided to run the flop twice (Mat had TT, farha AA). Matasow hit his set on the river of the last run, farha's AA held up on the first run, for a split pot. Why would farha agree to run it twice if he knew he had an advantage? Seems he knowingly gave Matasow twice the opportunity to hit and crack his aces. [/ QUOTE ] I like running it twice when I am ahead. Long term, it is the same EV as running it once. And I don't have to pay for insurance. And there are three "good" outcomes. If I win both or lose both, it's the same as running it once. If I lose the top and win the bottom, it's better than running it once. It only sucks when I win the top and lose the bottom.
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#10
10-12-2006, 04:36 PM
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Re: running it twice
This may sound stupid for asking, but I've always wondered about this after watching that hand being run twice on High Stakes:
After dealing the first flop/turn/river and determining the winner, does the dealer reshuffle the deck (minus the player's cards) and then deal out the second flop/turn/river? Or does the dealer just continue dealing both community cards back to back? I figured reshuffle makes more sense, but from what I recall from watching High Stakes, both sets of community cards were placed on the table.
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