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Quick question on implied odds
My brain's quite happy working this stuff out when I have a template to work from but the initial turning-the-problem-into-a-template confuses me. It's a fairly simple question but it's something that I'd like to bring into my though process while playing hands.
I have a set and I'm absolutely sure I have my opponent beaten at this time. I've put him on either a four flush or two pair or some other hand that is good but not as good as mine. I give him a 60% chance of having the flush draw and 40% chance of having another good hand. There's just the river card to come. There's $100 in the pot. I have position. I'm obviously raising any bet if the flush card doesn't come. I'm willing to call anything up to 3/4 of the pot should the flush draw hit. How much do I need to bet on the turn in order to offer my opponent unprofitable implied odds? Also, could you point out any flawed thinking in that please [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] |
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