Poker Stars: VPP per hand - post-legislation edition

[kidpokeher]

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Am I dumb or does the method use in the op not account for the fact that you get 2 vpp's when the rake is capped? Shouldn't you double the number of hands where rake is capped, then add that number to all other raked hands that qualify for 1 vpp, then divide by the total number of hands?

If my math is right then I am getting-

NL100 .45 vpp per hand (45K hands)
Nl200 .65 vpp per hand (56K hands)

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The extra VPP is being factored in. That is why you filter the hands that generate $2 (or $3) in rake and add it to the number of hands that generate $.40 (or $1) in rake. If you confirm this is how you calculated your figures I'll add them to the list.