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  #1  
Old 06-20-2006, 08:14 PM
Artsemis Artsemis is offline
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Default Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed rake

Okay, before you say it, I've searched... lots. It's not that I didn't find answers, it's that I found largely varying results.

Here's my question: When you are given rakeback on WSEX is it based on how much you contributed as a percentage to the pot being your percentage of the rake you get back or is it rake divided by players dealt cards?

The former is what WSEX support claims:
The rake back is based on who contributes. If you didnt contribute, you wont accumulate rake. Thus, you wont receive any rake back.

Best regards,
Byron
WPX


However, I just sat at a table, posted a blind (0.25) and folded on the flop. The pot was raked .05. Next I posted the small blind (0.10) and folded preflop -- the pot ended up getting raked over $1.50.

After this, I closed the table and had a little over .50 for my rakeback -- this is more than I even contributed so its no way near my percentage share of the rake.

It seems obvious that this proves you get equal rake based on the number of players dealt cards, wether you fold or not preflop -- but why are there so many people arguing one way or the other, including WSEX support?

Thanks in advance.
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  #2  
Old 06-20-2006, 09:15 PM
Artsemis Artsemis is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

Well, after exchanging a couple emails here is what I got:

--------------------------------------------------------
The rake is not taken after a hand is completed. There are for betting rounds in Texas Hold'em and the rake is distributed according to each round of betting so basically any amount that a player contributes in a particular round that is the amount that he's going to get back in return.

Best regards,
Byron
WPX
--------------------------------------------------------
Byron, thanks again for the response but it still isn't making sense to me. If what I get back is based on how much I contributed in a particular round how did my .10 blind get me back .50 in rake? My .10 made up a very very small percentage of the rake on that betting round (5 cents)... since my .10 blind made up about 10% of the pot, i should get 10% of the rake at that point in time (1/10 of .05).

Where is my thinking flawed?

- Jay
--------------------------------------------------------
Hello Jay,

Your thinking isnt flawed. Our rake computation system is. It should be much improved after the update.

Best regards,
Byron
WPX
--------------------------------------------------------


So there you have it. This is why their support keeps stating that it is based on contribution but tests clearly show differently. I hope this was a planned fix before I said something [img]/images/graemlins/wink.gif[/img]
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  #3  
Old 06-21-2006, 06:41 AM
Arbitrage Arbitrage is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

Great going on pointing this mistake out to them. Now we will get significantly less RB.
FYP
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  #4  
Old 06-21-2006, 08:01 AM
Wolf44 Wolf44 is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

yeah, extrasmart
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  #5  
Old 06-21-2006, 08:42 AM
Artsemis Artsemis is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

And people will take significantly less from your won pots.
Learn to play winning poker and don't worry about it.
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  #6  
Old 06-21-2006, 09:11 AM
sharp63 sharp63 is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

Why do they even bother trying to come up with somewhat complex methods of calculating rake. Why don't they just give the FULL rake to the person who won the pot? That is technically that person's money, so they should be entitlted to all of it when distributing the rake.
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  #7  
Old 06-21-2006, 09:24 AM
Artsemis Artsemis is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

That's the thing, some dont agree it's that persons money. The best argument against it is that rake is taken at each betting round (this is true), at which point you dont know who is winning the pot; the money is taken equally from everyone in the hand, even though the winner of the pot would be the one that ultimately ends up with the money.

I could be convinced either one is correct but the one WSEX uses now, while good for certain players (weak-tight mostly) it isn't the most "fair".
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  #8  
Old 06-21-2006, 10:30 AM
jds1201 jds1201 is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

i don't get it. when they actually remove the chips from the pot means nothing. it doesn't matter. the person who wins the pot pays the rake. if there was no rake, the pot he just won would be that much bigger.
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  #9  
Old 06-21-2006, 10:45 AM
Artsemis Artsemis is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

It's just semantics based on when they took the money.

Since rake isn't taken out at the end of the pot, it is taken out on each betting round. Say 10 players see the flop, $3 is taken in rake -- who paid it? Everyone did. You cant say the winner paid for the rake for the first betting round because you dont know who that is.

If they would take it out at the end it would be considered to be taken from the winner of the pot.
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  #10  
Old 06-21-2006, 10:55 AM
bengele bengele is offline
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Default Re: Just because I think we need another thread on WSEX - contributed

[ QUOTE ]
Why do they even bother trying to come up with somewhat complex methods of calculating rake. Why don't they just give the FULL rake to the person who won the pot? That is technically that person's money, so they should be entitlted to all of it when distributing the rake.

[/ QUOTE ]

I believe they have skins and the players on the skins still pay rake.
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