US constitution original intent question

[PLOlover]

if the commerce clause and general welfare little clause allow US fed gov to do pretty much anything, as a lot people think (and is our current law), then what is the point / how can people say the fed const. limits government?

wasn't the point that the fed goverment only had the powers spelled out in the const.? isn't the total anything goes commerce/welfare clauses totally inconsistent with limited powers?

I mean I think the real argument about why US has national welfare system, for example, is that it is extra-constitutional (fraud), but backed up by force, which is why it is followed and applied. and also of course that the people want socialism, plain and simple.