malmuth on bluffing

[DrVanNostrin]

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Is he not speaking in an all-knowing theory manner? Meaning when the guy who bluffs zero percent of the time bets, he is only betting when he has the best hand. And for the guy that bluffs 50% of the time, he is only bluffing when he has the worst hand for certain.

Sometimes you obviously bluff with the best hand or value bet the worse, but that would needlessly complicate basic theoretic models.

This seems like the most obvious explanation here. Occam FTW? [img]/images/graemlins/wink.gif[/img]

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I would be helpful to have the essay. Without it we really can't say what he's talking about. I would guess that the folks who say he's wrong have mininterpreted what he wrote.