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  #1  
Old 05-19-2007, 06:03 PM
redfisher redfisher is offline
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Default Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

2/5 NL game where you have to post to play. Player elects not to post, but the dealer still deals him in. The dealer is new for the WSOP circuit, maybe his first day. He's just sitting there trying to figure out what to do. I tell him to finish the deal and kill the ineligible hand, which he does.

Is this correct, or should it have been a misdeal? If it matters, I only had one card and hadn't looked so I have no knowledge of the deal.
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  #2  
Old 05-19-2007, 06:09 PM
Edge34 Edge34 is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

Every time I've seen this happen, the dealer just kills the hand dealt to the ineligible player and moves on with the hand. Seems standard.
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  #3  
Old 05-19-2007, 06:31 PM
pfapfap pfapfap is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

It's what I always do and what the floor always says to do. Only time I'll do a misdeal is if someone indicates s/he'll post a big blind, then changes his/her mind after cards are out. But I confess this is more to set an example. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
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  #4  
Old 05-19-2007, 07:03 PM
Chipr777 Chipr777 is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

[ QUOTE ]
Every time I've seen this happen, the dealer just kills the hand dealt to the ineligible player and moves on with the hand. Seems standard.


[/ QUOTE ] If the player that was dealt in elects to play the hand he must post the next hand. Of course this is room dependent but this is how it's done in our room.
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  #5  
Old 05-19-2007, 09:10 PM
UbinTook UbinTook is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

[ QUOTE ]
It's what I always do and what the floor always says to do. Only time I'll do a misdeal is if someone indicates s/he'll post a big blind, then changes his/her mind after cards are out. But I confess this is more to set an example. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

[/ QUOTE ]

WTF?
Player says they will take a blind, then decides NOT to after the cards are dealt and you MISDEAL?

A. Players should post the blind before the cards are dealt. ( but we all know this isnt always what happens)

SO...

B. If they say they are posting, they cant decide after the cards are dealt that they have changed their mind.
They are obligated to the blind.
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  #6  
Old 05-19-2007, 10:31 PM
jjshabado jjshabado is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

[ QUOTE ]
2/5 NL game where you have to post to play. Player elects not to post, but the dealer still deals him in. The dealer is new for the WSOP circuit, maybe his first day. He's just sitting there trying to figure out what to do. I tell him to finish the deal and kill the ineligible hand, which he does.

Is this correct, or should it have been a misdeal? If it matters, I only had one card and hadn't looked so I have no knowledge of the deal.

[/ QUOTE ]

I'd just like to say that if you're not very confident in your knowledge of what to do, its probably better to have the dealer call the floor over.
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  #7  
Old 05-19-2007, 11:57 PM
pfapfap pfapfap is offline
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Default Re: Hand dealt to ineligible player? Is this a misdeal?

Ah, no, I was told specifically not to wait for blinds to be out. But anyway, I think the previous post was the fantasy me talking, thinking of specific players. If the person refuses after I pressure a bit, I just call the floor. Hardly ever comes up.
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