PItcher bunting ruling question

[Jack of Arcades]

Yeah, if he intentionally does it then it's going to be interference.

[zer0]

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Everything is obvious if you know the answer.


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wasn't trying to be a smartass or anything, but why stop at just kicking the ball out of the way? why not pick it up and throw it down the right field line and clear the bases?

[MicroBob]

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6.05
A batter is out when --

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder;

(h) After hitting or bunting a fair ball, his bat hits the ball a second time in fair territory. The ball is dead and no runners may advance. If the batter-runner drops his bat and the ball rolls against the bat in fair territory and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, the ball is alive and in play;



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thanks for clarifying.
This is what I meant when I said that I didn't think the term 'runner' applied to the batter.

Totally dead-ball. No runners advance. That makes more sense.

[Benholio]

[ QUOTE ]
6.05
A batter is out when --

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder;

(h) After hitting or bunting a fair ball, his bat hits the ball a second time in fair territory. The ball is dead and no runners may advance. If the batter-runner drops his bat and the ball rolls against the bat in fair territory and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, the ball is alive and in play;



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I don't see how this rule clears up anything about the runners advancing. Rule 6.05g simply states that he is out, which we know. Rule 6.05h doesn't seem relevant, since it is referring to the batter hitting the ball a second time with the bat.

The spirit of that rule seems to match our scenario, but it clearly refers to the bat hitting the ball, not the player.

[j555]

Alright, here we go:

7.09
It is interference by a batter or a runner when --

(k)A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.
PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE: The runner is out and the ball is dead.

The last two sentences say it all. The runner is out for intentionally kicking a ball and the ball is dead therefore no runners can advance. Case closed.

[jstnrgrs]

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How could anyone be forced to advance ever, then, in your interpretation?

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If the basses were loaded, and a batted ball hit the runner comming from second, then the runner on third would stay at third (since he is not forced anymore), but the runner on first would be advance to second and the batter would advance to first (since they are forced).

[vhawk01]

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Alright, here we go:

7.09
It is interference by a batter or a runner when --

(k)A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.
PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE: The runner is out and the ball is dead.

The last two sentences say it all. The runner is out for intentionally kicking a ball and the ball is dead therefore no runners can advance. Case closed.

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Does "the ball is dead" really mean what you are saying it does, though? Honest question. You are probably correct, this seems the common-sense understanding of what would happen, just wondering if it is made clear somewhere that that is what a dead ball means in all circumstances.

[j555]

I can't beleive this discussion has gone on this long, but here's some definitions from the MLB rules to help end this.

A DEAD BALL is a ball out of play because of a legally created temporary suspension of play.

INTERFERENCE
(a) Offensive interference is an act by the team at bat which interferes with, obstructs, impedes, hinders or confuses any fielder attempting to make a play. If the umpire declares the batter, batter- runner, or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was in the judgment of the umpire, legally touched at the time of the interference, unless otherwise provided by these rules.
Rule 2.00 (Interference) Comment: In the event the batter-runner has not reached first base, all runners shall return to the base last occupied at the time of the pitch.

[andyfox]

Of course this is the answer. Suppose, otherwise, that A-Rod, isntead of hacking at the ball, took it out of the fielder's glove and threw it into the outfield.

[ScottHoward v3.1]

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How could anyone be forced to advance ever, then, in your interpretation?

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If the basses were loaded, and a batted ball hit the runner comming from second, then the runner on third would stay at third (since he is not forced anymore), but the runner on first would be advance to second and the batter would advance to first (since they are forced).

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i already explained this exact scenario?