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#11
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I think 4 is awful. JJ is pretty strong and villain may push AK or TT.
I don't like a reraise to 1200. Make it atleast 1700 or push. If I reraise, I pretty much am never folding ever. If you reraise to 1200 or so, you should either have a complete resteal with a suited gapper or something and fold to a push, or else have AA/KK. JJ is too strong to reraise/fold. I personally think a reraise other than a push is a little silly with this stack size, and I don't see the point of trying to represent strength with a nonpush reraise with this hand. If I flat call, I am usually getting the money in. If the flop comes ace high and villain bets strong, I generally fold. So I would probably push or flat call. Whatever I do, I generally get the money in eventually. |
#12
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Actually I think the levels were 60 minutes each, so this was more like 150 minutes in rather than 75 minutes in. My statement about only playing 2-3 hands without a showdown to that point still remains though. (JJ was my first PP and AJ was my best non-paired hand to that point.)
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#13
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I'm more inclined to Jam, but calling is acceptable because of the read we have on villian. I would like calling more if our stack was 30bb+.
Any sort of raising and folding line is awful. |
#14
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I said 1.
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#15
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[ QUOTE ]
I spoke with Bond18 and UCLABruinz about this hand and I couldn’t get the 3 of us to agree on how best to play most of the streets on this hand. Situation: WSOP Event #3 $1500NLHE, Level 3, approximately 75 minutes into the event, blinds at 100/200 (no antes yet). Villain with ~8000 chips in MP1 opens to 600. I’m in the CO with JJ and 4200 chips. Reads: Villain, who is in his late 40s/early 50s, has been very active although he hasn’t shown down anything worse than AJ/99+. He has C-bet at every opportunity thus far. The players to my left have been playing fairly tight, and none of them have looked at their cards yet. My image is very tight to this point, only having played 2-3 hands thus far due to ugly cards. I haven’t shown down a hand yet. Q1- what would you do Preflop? 1) Jam 21BBs over Villain’s PFR 2) Call and play Pokah 3) RR (to 1200-1800) and call a Jam 4) RR (to 1200-1800) and fold to a Jam 5) Other - explain [/ QUOTE ] Definitely definitely reraise (probably allin) . Does MP1 = the hijack? Ok seems like its 3 off button. Anyway you have 20x BB. I think it's a clear allin. Whatever as long as you raise something reasonable it's not the end of the world, but I would go allin. |
#16
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With 20BB I would just get it in. If you had 30+BB then I kinda like a call or repoping to like 1800.
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#17
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and now for the proof:
if he calls with following: JJ+,AK and raises with: 88+,AQo+,AJs+ it's only -.25 BB to move allin (assuming no calls behind) Given that I'd say the above is an absolute worst case scenario (and very unrealistic also), I can't imagine that moving allin isn't clearly +EV, especially as they might call with TT, and will also have many many more hands in their raising range from 3 off button. I'm too lazy to run it with a somewhat normal raising range, but I'm sure its very clear +EV. |
#18
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1 usually but 3 if he's dumb enough to call 40% of the effective stacks to see a flop and re-evaluate.
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#19
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[ QUOTE ]
I personally think a reraise other than a push is a little silly with this stack size, and I don't see the point of trying to represent strength with a nonpush reraise with this hand. [/ QUOTE ] Because sometimes people suck enough to call less than all-in with a hand they wouldn't call all-in with? |
#20
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Its a 1. I mean you say he cont bets most flops, but how many hands do you have on him doing this? 3, 5, 10? Also it greatly depends if hes loose enough to call a push with 55 AJ+ then its an easy push. If he is not then just call and get it in on the flop.
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