PItcher bunting ruling question

[vhawk01]

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How could anyone be forced to advance ever, then, in your interpretation?

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Think of it as though they would be out by a force play... then they're being forced.

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Right, meaning in the OPs scenario, they would be forced...right? And so they'd advance.

[MicroBob]

So could the batter just run after the ball in ANY direction he bunted it and kick it?

If it's a crappy bunt that lands right in front of the plate and is obvious the catcher has a legit shot to throw out the lead runner at 3rd then the pitcher could just step in front and kick it, right?


Wouldn't this also be a possibility for a bases-loaded squeeze-play? Race out there and kick that bad boy before they can get the force out at home.


My mind is racing with weird possibilities.

[lippy]

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Wouldn't this also be a possibility for a bases-loaded squeeze-play? Race out there and kick that bad boy before they can get the force out at home.

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I think the no runner may score clause supersedes the force clause.

I also think it is important to note that this is a delayed dead ball, meaning if he kicks it with runners on first and second, whoever fields it can still make a play to, say, third.

[MicroBob]

Lippy, I don't think your interpretation is correct.

"The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance."


Looks to me that if you are FORCED to advance then you may score.


Also:

"If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead."

this seems to imply that the ball is not live for the fielding team to throw out the runners.
The ball is instantly dead.

In your scenario though the batter would just have to make sure he kicked it far enough away where they couldn't field it.



However, is all this stuff we're looking at accurate?
It is referring to the runners. I thought the runners were the guys who were already on base.
We're positive the same thing applies for the batter too, right?


Another way this could work is with based-loaded and the infielders drawn-in in a tie game in the 9th.
Ground ball to the SS who will have a fairly routine play to get the force at home.
The runner on 2nd and try to intentionally kick the ball before he fields it in an effort to allow the winning run to score.

[mo42nyy]

i think if the umpire deems it intentional he can rule it a double play,(if the team would have likely turned one)
king of like if you just stop to block a fielder causing him to boot the ball

[lippy]

When I wake up tomorrow and am not on illicit drugs I will try to look up applicable rules in my NFHSL rule book to see what it says. Hopefully its wording is better.

I really think we're gaging the situation incorrectly. It may even be in the Case Book.

Also, 25k posts. How's it feel?

[Karak567]

Batter is out. No runners advance.

[ScottHoward v3.1]

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Lippy, I don't think your interpretation is correct.

"The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance."


Looks to me that if you are FORCED to advance then you may score.


Also:

"If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead."

this seems to imply that the ball is not live for the fielding team to throw out the runners.
The ball is instantly dead.

In your scenario though the batter would just have to make sure he kicked it far enough away where they couldn't field it.



However, is all this stuff we're looking at accurate?
It is referring to the runners. I thought the runners were the guys who were already on base.
We're positive the same thing applies for the batter too, right?


Another way this could work is with based-loaded and the infielders drawn-in in a tie game in the 9th.
Ground ball to the SS who will have a fairly routine play to get the force at home.
The runner on 2nd and try to intentionally kick the ball before he fields it in an effort to allow the winning run to score.

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nobody can score because only forced runners can advance.
the only way a runner can be forced to advance is if the ball hits a runner in front of him.
a runner from 3rd cant advance home because theres no runner in front of him to get hit with a ball, it would have to be somebody behind him, which would mean he isnt forced to score.
bases loaded, guys gets hit going 2nd to 3rd, guy on 3rd has to return, guy on first goes to second because hes forced to do so by the batter taking first.


in our scenario here, we are looking at the wrong rule imo. we should be looking at something regarding the batter. this would be the same situation as a batter who bunts a fair ball that bounces up and hits him while hes no longer in the batters box. hes out and nobody advances. it doesn’t matter that it took a little longer for the batter to eventually touch the batted ball.

[True North]

It's the same as the A-Rod/Arroyo play in 2004, isn't it? It's interference, so the batter is out, and no runners advance.

[j555]

6.05
A batter is out when --

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder;

(h) After hitting or bunting a fair ball, his bat hits the ball a second time in fair territory. The ball is dead and no runners may advance. If the batter-runner drops his bat and the ball rolls against the bat in fair territory and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, the ball is alive and in play;