Baseball rules question

[kyleb]

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kyle,

Was this a theoretical or empirical study?

I could see how theoretically there would be no change but if the pitcher feels more comfortable he throws better.

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They analyzed the mechanics of pitchers throwing from the stretch and the windup in lab conditions. Most pitchers said they were more comfortable throwing from the windup and felt they threw harder and had better location. All studies prove that velocity is not significantly affected (if anything, velocity actually decreases from the windup) and most studies show that location is worse from the windup. Mechanics analysis shows that no more force is being put on the ball from the windup as compared to the stretch, and recorded pitch data echoes the result.

However, pitching solely from the stretch might be worse for some pitchers since they are just comfortable with the duality of windup/stretch deliveries throughout a game. There's nothing wrong with that.

EDIT: I have always pitched out of the stretch, never from the windup. I tried pitching from the windup after reading some theories on momentum pitching, but I still feel comfortable out of a stretch delivery. With runners on my stretch delivery takes longer, but it's still the same motions.

[mason55]

So, obvious followup question...

Should pitchers be taught to throw from the stretch only starting from a young age?

[kyleb]

*shrug*

That would be the obvious conclusion, wouldn't it? [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

I teach my kids to pitch from the stretch only unless they feel more comfortable in the windup. In reality, the difference is minimal, so if it's going to cause any friction, it's not worth trying to change.

[jstnrgrs]

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That run can never score unless the pitcher balks.

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This would never happen. The runner would have to cross home before the pitcher balked. I'd venture a guess that Curt Schilling has balked less than 2 times as a major league pitcher from the wind-up.

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This can't be right. What if the runner scores 5 seconds before the pitcher releases the ball, and the the batter grounds out to end the inning? The run still doesn't count? What if the batter calls (and is granted) time after the runner touches the plate? The run still doesn't count?

If the rule is actually the way you said, then it's pretty dumb.


A similar question I always had, is when is a runner required to go back on a foul ball? (Does the runner have to be to the next base before the pitcher releases the ball?)

[MicroBob]

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A similar question I always had, is when is a runner required to go back on a foul ball? (Does the runner have to be to the next base before the pitcher releases the ball?)

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huh?

[kidcolin]

I think he means if he's stealing? Like what if he reached the next base before the pitcher released, then a guy hits a foul ball?

He still has to go back.

[MicroBob]

LOL at the idea of runners really hustling their asses off and trying to score from 2nd every time there's a super high foul ball.

Could make the game more fun in a really ridiculous way though.

[evank15]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
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That run can never score unless the pitcher balks.

[/ QUOTE ]

This would never happen. The runner would have to cross home before the pitcher balked. I'd venture a guess that Curt Schilling has balked less than 2 times as a major league pitcher from the wind-up.

[/ QUOTE ]

This can't be right. What if the runner scores 5 seconds before the pitcher releases the ball, and the the batter grounds out to end the inning? The run still doesn't count? What if the batter calls (and is granted) time after the runner touches the plate? The run still doesn't count?

If the rule is actually the way you said, then it's pretty dumb.


A similar question I always had, is when is a runner required to go back on a foul ball? (Does the runner have to be to the next base before the pitcher releases the ball?)

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That last question is pretty retarded, sorry.

As for the answer to your first point, if the guy is in the full windup and the guy on third steals home, the play is started when the pitcher starts his motion. Once his motion is started, it doesn't matter if the runner from third is in the dugout sipping some gatorade before the batter grounds out. He's still out.

You can't call time when a pitcher is already in his motion.

[Bremen]

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You can't call time when a pitcher is already in his motion.

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I always love it when the pitcher is in his motion and the catcher calls time. So funny to see the ump pointing at the catcher, "He did it!"

[jstnrgrs]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
That run can never score unless the pitcher balks.

[/ QUOTE ]

This would never happen. The runner would have to cross home before the pitcher balked. I'd venture a guess that Curt Schilling has balked less than 2 times as a major league pitcher from the wind-up.

[/ QUOTE ]

This can't be right. What if the runner scores 5 seconds before the pitcher releases the ball, and the the batter grounds out to end the inning? The run still doesn't count? What if the batter calls (and is granted) time after the runner touches the plate? The run still doesn't count?

If the rule is actually the way you said, then it's pretty dumb.


A similar question I always had, is when is a runner required to go back on a foul ball? (Does the runner have to be to the next base before the pitcher releases the ball?)

[/ QUOTE ]

That last question is pretty retarded, sorry.

As for the answer to your first point, if the guy is in the full windup and the guy on third steals home, the play is started when the pitcher starts his motion. Once his motion is started, it doesn't matter if the runner from third is in the dugout sipping some gatorade before the batter grounds out. He's still out.

You can't call time when a pitcher is already in his motion.

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I'm sorry everyone thinks this question is so dumb. What if a runner takes second on defensive indifference, they change pitchers, and the next pitch is fouled? Surely the runner doesn't have to go back to first. So what is the cuttoff?